PS

Total 03 Papers

Paper 1 - GS & GK of Constitution of India and Machinery of Government, Practice and Procedures in Parliament and Knowledge of RTI Act, 2005. - 2 Hrs. - 150 Marks - Objective

Paper 2 - Procedure and Practice in the Govt of India Secretariat and attached offices and General Financial and Service Rules duly taking into account the requirement of relevant categories of services. - 2 Hrs - 150 Marks - Objective

Paper 3 - Noting and Drafting, Precis Writing - 3 Hrs - 200 Marks - Subjective

Paper 4 - Evaluation of record of Service - 100

Category I Section Officers’ Grade of the Central Secretariat Service

Category II Sections Officer Grade of the General Cadre of the Indian Foreign Service, Branch ‘B’

Category III Section Officers’ Grade of the Railway Board Secretariat Service

Category IV Private Secretary Grade of the Central Secretariat Stenographers’ Service

Category V Private Secretary Grade of the Stenographers’ Cadre of the Indian Foreign Service, Branch ‘B’

Category VI Grade ‘A & ‘B’ merged of the Armed Forces Headquarters Stenographers’ Service

Category VII Grade ‘B’ of the Railway Board Secretariat Stenographer’s Service

Category VIII Section Officers’ Grade of the Intelligence Bureau

Category IX Private Secretary Grade in Employees’ State Insurance Corporation

Category X Section Officers in Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service

Category XI Assistant Director/Section Officers/Manager Gr.I in Employees’ State Insurance Corporation

Q on RTI

1. Under the RTI Act, 2005, who appoints the Chief Information Commissioner at the central level?

A) The President

B) The Prime Minister

C) A committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister

D) The Parliament

Answer: C

2. What is the maximum time within which information must be provided if it concerns the life and liberty of a person?

A) 30 days

B) 15 days

C) 48 hours

D) 7 days

Answer: C

3. Which of the following is not a valid ground for rejecting an RTI application under the Act?

A) Disclosure of information that prejudices India's sovereignty and integrity

B) Information already available in the public domain

C) Request for disclosure of personal information without a larger public interest

D) Information pertaining to commercial interests of private firms

Answer: D

4. Who is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the RTI Act at the central level?

A) Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT)

B) Chief Information Commission

C) Ministry of Law and Justice

D) Comptroller and Auditor General

Answer: A

5. Which section of the RTI Act specifies exemptions from disclosure of information?

A) Section 4

B) Section 6

C) Section 8

D) Section 12

Answer: C

6. Which of the following information cannot be denied to Parliament or a State Legislature under the RTI Act?

A) Cabinet papers

B) Personal information

C) Information related to trade secrets

D) Information that cannot be denied to Parliament or a State Legislature

Answer: D

7. What is the maximum penalty for a Public Information Officer (PIO) for not furnishing information on time?

A) ₹5,000

B) ₹10,000

C) ₹25,000

D) ₹50,000

Answer: C

8. The RTI Act applies to all states and union territories of India except:

A) Sikkim

B) Goa

C) Jammu and Kashmir

D) Ladakh

Answer: C (prior to the abrogation of Article 370)

9. Under Section 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act, what are public authorities required to publish proactively?

A) Their financial records

B) Monthly reports

C) Details of their functions, duties, and powers

D) Minutes of all meetings

Answer: C

10. A citizen residing outside India can seek information under the RTI Act through:

A) Indian embassies or consulates

B) A proxy applicant

C) Online portals only

D) They are not allowed to file RTI applications

Answer: A

11. Which section of the RTI Act provides for the protection of whistleblowers?

A) Section 20

B) Section 4

C) Section 11

D) The RTI Act does not have explicit provisions for whistleblowers

Answer: D

12. Under which of the following circumstances can third-party information be disclosed?

A) When it is older than 10 years

B) If the third party consents or the public interest outweighs the harm to their privacy

C) With a court order only

D) When requested by a government official

Answer: B

13. Appeals against the decision of a PIO must be made to the:

A) Central Information Commission

B) Appellate Authority within the department

C) State Information Commission

D) High Court

Answer: B

14. Which of the following provisions pertains to the fee for filing RTI applications?

A) Section 7(1)

B) Section 5(3)

C) Section 6(1)

D) Section 27

Answer: C

15. The RTI Act was enacted to promote:

A) Transparency and accountability in public administration

B) Effective implementation of government schemes

C) Freedom of speech and expression

D) Reduction in corruption

Answer: A

16. Which of the following cannot be considered a "public authority" under the RTI Act?

A) Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs) substantially funded by the government

B) Private companies

C) State-owned corporations

D) Panchayati Raj Institutions

Answer: B

17. What is the prescribed format for filing an RTI application?

A) Predefined application form provided by the department

B) Any written or electronic communication

C) Oral submission before the PIO

D) There is no prescribed format

Answer: B

18. The second appeal under the RTI Act can be filed before the:

A) District Magistrate

B) Central or State Information Commission

C) High Court

D) Supreme Court

Answer: B

19. The RTI Act mandates suo moto disclosure of information by public authorities under which section?

A) Section 8

B) Section 3

C) Section 4

D) Section 7

Answer: C

20. Which of the following was the first country to enact a law on Freedom of Information?

A) United States

B) India

C) Sweden

D) United Kingdom

Answer: C

Set 1: Advanced RTI MCQs

1. When a Public Information Officer (PIO) transfers an RTI request to another public authority, the response time for the new PIO is counted from:

A. The date the original application was received by the first PIO

B. The date the application was transferred to the new PIO

C. The date the new PIO receives the application

D. The date the applicant submits an appeal

Answer: C. The date the new PIO receives the application

2. If the information sought is partly covered under exemptions and partly not, the PIO should:

A. Reject the entire application under Section 8

B. Provide only the non-exempt information

C. Seek approval from the appellate authority before responding

D. Deny the information citing Section 9

Answer: B. Provide only the non-exempt information

3. A public authority delays providing information beyond the stipulated timeline due to a genuine technical issue. What penalty can the CIC impose?

A. No penalty, as the delay was unintentional

B. ₹250 per day up to ₹25,000, even for unintentional delays

C. Disciplinary action against the PIO without a monetary penalty

D. ₹100 per day, capped at ₹10,000

Answer: B. ₹250 per day up to ₹25,000, even for unintentional delays

4. Can a PIO refuse information if the RTI applicant has not addressed their application to the correct authority?

A. Yes, the application is invalid if addressed to the wrong authority

B. No, the PIO must transfer the application to the correct authority within 5 days

C. Yes, but only after informing the applicant in writing

D. No, the applicant must be advised to submit a fresh application

Answer: B. No, the PIO must transfer the application to the correct authority within 5 days

5. Under Section 8(1)(j), “personal information” can be disclosed if:

A. It pertains to the personal details of a government official

B. The applicant submits a notarized affidavit

C. There is a larger public interest in disclosing the information

D. The information is more than 5 years old

Answer: C. There is a larger public interest in disclosing the information

6. What should the PIO do if the information sought is in a language not understood by the applicant?

A. Deny the information

B. Provide the information in the language it exists

C. Translate the information and provide it in a language understood by the applicant

D. Seek clarification from the applicant on the preferred language

Answer: B. Provide the information in the language it exists

7. In case of incomplete information provided by the PIO, the first appellate authority can:

A. Impose a penalty on the PIO

B. Direct the PIO to provide the remaining information

C. Recommend disciplinary action against the PIO

D. Refer the case to the Central Information Commission

Answer: B. Direct the PIO to provide the remaining information

8. If the requested information is held by multiple public authorities, the PIO should:

A. Provide the applicant with the contact details of all relevant authorities

B. Transfer the application to each of the relevant public authorities

C. Provide only the part of the information available with their authority

D. Seek clarification from the applicant on which authority to approach

Answer: C. Provide only the part of the information available with their authority

9. If an RTI request involves third-party information, the PIO must:

A. Reject the request under Section 8(1)(j)

B. Seek the written consent of the third party before disclosure

C. Disclose the information after informing the third party

D. Disclose the information only after CIC approval

Answer: B. Seek the written consent of the third party before disclosure

10. Under the RTI Act, a PIO can deny information under Section 9 if:

A. It leads to a breach of copyright of a private publisher

B. The applicant is unwilling to pay the prescribed fees

C. The information pertains to personal grievances

D. It causes inconvenience to the public authority

Answer: A. It leads to a breach of copyright of a private publisher

11. Which of the following types of information is barred from disclosure under Section 24?

A. Minutes of a Cabinet meeting

B. Intelligence inputs affecting national security

C. Internal memos of a public authority

D. Annual reports of an intelligence agency

Answer: B. Intelligence inputs affecting national security

12. The role of the CIC or SIC in appeals is to:

A. Reinterpret laws and issue directions on policy

B. Review the decisions of public authorities and impose penalties if necessary

C. Frame new rules and regulations for the RTI Act

D. Approve or deny requests for classified information

Answer: B. Review the decisions of public authorities and impose penalties if necessary

13. An RTI application can be rejected if:

A. The information sought is available online

B. The applicant does not specify the format in which information is needed

C. The applicant refuses to pay the prescribed fee

D. The information involves administrative expenses

Answer: C. The applicant refuses to pay the prescribed fee

14. If a PIO fails to appear for a hearing before the CIC, the Commission can:

A. Summon the PIO and impose a monetary penalty

B. Close the case in favor of the applicant

C. Recommend the suspension of the PIO

D. Allow the appellate authority to handle the matter

Answer: A. Summon the PIO and impose a monetary penalty

15. How can the First Appellate Authority (FAA) handle repetitive RTI requests on the same subject?

A. Deny the appeal outright

B. Refer the matter to the CIC

C. Dispose of the appeal stating that the matter has already been addressed

D. Penalize the applicant

Answer: C. Dispose of the appeal stating that the matter has already been addressed

16. An RTI applicant demands information that requires data collation. The PIO should:

A. Deny the request citing excessive workload

B. Provide the information if it can be collated with reasonable effort

C. Seek clarification from the applicant to reduce the scope

D. Reject the application outright

Answer: B. Provide the information if it can be collated with reasonable effort

17. Under Section 20(1), a PIO can be penalized for:

A. Denying information for reasons of national interest

B. Failing to maintain proper records as per Section 4

C. Refusing to accept an RTI application

D. Delaying the provision of information without reasonable cause

Answer: D. Delaying the provision of information without reasonable cause

18. If a PIO provides false information under the RTI Act, the CIC/SIC can:

A. Impose a penalty of ₹250 per day up to ₹25,000

B. Recommend departmental action against the PIO

C. Both A and B

D. File a criminal case against the PIO

Answer: C. Both A and B

19. An applicant requests information that is available in the public domain. The PIO should:

A. Provide the information after charging the prescribed fee

B. Deny the information stating that it is already in the public domain

C. Redirect the applicant to the source of the information

D. Charge a penalty for wasting the public authority’s time

Answer: C. Redirect the applicant to the source of the information

20. Can an applicant file a complaint directly with the CIC without filing the first appeal?

A. Yes, in cases of non-receipt of information or PIO non-responsiveness

B. No, the first appeal is mandatory

C. Yes, but only with CIC approval

D. No, complaints cannot bypass the FAA

Answer: A. Yes, in cases of non-receipt of information or PIO non-responsiveness

Feel free to copy and use these questions! Let me know if you’d like more.

Q1 RTI includes the right to

a. inspect works, documents, records

b. take notes, extracts or certified copies of documents or records

c. take certified samples of material

d. obtain information in forms of printouts, diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or in any other electronic mode or through printouts

a. a,b and c

b. a,b and d

c. a, c and d

d. All

Ans. All of the above

Explanation: The Right to Information Act passed in 2005 extends to all states and union territories of India excepting the state of J&K. This act gives Indian citizens the right to access information about any public authority or institution, including non-government organisations substantially funded by the government.

The main aims of the RTI Act are to provide clarity of the information to the citizens of India, to contain corruption, and to promote accountability in the working of every public authority.

Right includes:

a. Inspect works, documents, records

b. Take notes, extracts, or certified copies of documents or records

c. Take certified samples of material

d. Obtain information in form of printouts, diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or in any other electronic mode or through printouts.

Q2. Which of the following bodies comes under the purview of Right to Information (RTI)?

i. Narcotics Control Bureau

ii. Enforcement Directorate

iii. Research Analysis Wing

a. i and iii

b. ii and iii

c. i and ii

d. none

Ans. d. none

Explanation: NCB has been declared an exempt organisation under Section 24 (1) of the RTI Act, 2005

- Under Section 24 read with 2nd Schedule of the RTI Act, 2005, the Directorate of Enforcement was exempted from disclosure of information.

- Research and Analysis Wing is exempted from disclosures under RTI.

RTI -

RTI Act, 2005 is a law enacted by the Parliament of India giving Indians access to Government records

- Under the terms of the Act, any person may request information from a "public authority" (a body of Government or Instrumentality of State) which is expected to reply expeditiously or within thirty days.

- The following are exempted from the purview of the Act

^ Matters pertaining to national sovereignty and integrity

^ Information expressly prohibited to be published by a court of law

^ Information regarding commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property etc.

Q3 If the Public Information Officer fails to give information to the informant within the period specified under the RTI Act, it is called _______

i. contempt

ii. holding information

iii. timeout

iv. deemed rejection

Ans. iv. deemed rejection

Explanation: Deemed rejection -

if the Public Information Officer fails to give information to the informant within the period specified under the RTI Act, 2005 it is called deemed rejection.

Q4 Which of the following does not come under the definition of 'information' under the RTI Act, 2005?

a. log books

b. circulars

c. file notings in the process

d. data material held in any electronic form

Ans. c. file notings in the process

Explanation: file notings do not come under the definition of "Information" under the RTI Act, 2005.

Section 2 (f) of the RTI Act, 2005 defines "information" as any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advice, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force.

Q5 Out of the following statements, which is not correct about the RTI Act, 2005?

i. The RTI Act came into force from October 13, 2005

ii. Any citizen may request information from a Public Authority (both Govt and Private)

iii. Reply for information asked can be given within 30 days.

iv. There is a nominal application fee that are needs to pay to get information under the RTI application.

v. For getting information, applicant has to pay Rs.10/- per page of information for Central Govt Departments.

a. i, ii and v

b. ii & v only

c. iii and v only

d. ii, iii, iv, and v only

Ans. i, ii and v only

Explanation: RTI is an act that sets out rules and regulations regarding citizen's right to information. It replaced the former Freedom of Information Act, 2002.

RTI Act, 2005: -

-The RTI Bill was passed in Parliament and came into force from October 12, 2005

-The basic objective of RTI Act is to empower the citizens, promote transparency and accountability in the working of the government, contain corruption, and make our democracy work for the people in the real sense.

-any citizen may request information about the activities of the public authority i.e. government authority

- the information can be obtained within 30 days from the date of request in normal case and in the matter of life or liberty of a person, the information can be obtained within 48 hours from the time of the request.

-Certain information is prohibited under Section 8

-An appeal against the decision of the CIC or SIC can be made to an officer who is senior in rank

-There is a nominal application fee that is needed to be paid to get information under the RTI Application

-The nominal fee to get the information is Rs.10 for every application as per Rule 3 of the RTI Rules, 2005

Q5 Which of the following statements are true regarding the objectives of RTI Act, 2005?

i. To operationalise the Fundamental Right to Information

ii. To set up system and mechanisms that facilitate people's easy access to information

iii. To promote transparency and accountability in governance

iv. to minimise corruption and inefficiency in public offices and ensure people participation in government and decision making

a. ii, iii, and iv

b. i, ii, iii and iv

c. i, ii, iii

d. i, ii, and iv

Ans. b. i, ii, iii and iv

Explanation: RTI Act 2005 is a law enacted by the Parliament of India, giving citizens of India access to records of the Central Government and State Governments

-The Act applies to all States and Union Territories of India, except the state of Jammu and Kashmir - which is covered under a State-level law

-It came into force on 12 October 2005

Objectives of RTI Act 2005 are:

-To operationalise the Fundamental Right to Information

-To set up system and mechanisms that facilitates people's easy access to information

-To promote transparency and accountability in governance

-To minimise corruption and inefficiency in public offices and ensure people participation in governance and decision-making.

Q7 Which of the following is not true with regard to the RTI Act, 2005?

a. The objective behind RTI is to maintain transparency in government operations

b. RTI is a key for empowering citizens

c. Containment of corruption in Government units is the important objective of the RTI Act

d. RTI Act appoints NITI Aayog responsible for channelising, regulating and maintaining the RTI Act in India

Ans. d. RTI Act appoints NITI Aayog responsible for channelising, regulating and maintaining the RTI Act in India

Explanation: In 1976, Raj Narain vs the State of Uttar Pradesh case, the Supreme Court ruled that the Right to Information will be treated as a fundamental right under Article 19.

-Thus the government enacted the RTI Act, 2005 which provides machinery for exercising this Fundamental Right

-All constitutional authorities, agencies, owned and controlled, also those organisations which are substantially financed by the government comes under the purview of the Act

-The act also imposes penalties if the authorities delay in responding to the citizen in the stipulated time

-The act also mandates public authorities of union government or state government, to provide timely responses to the citizens' request the information

-The act is one of the most important acts which empowers ordinary citizens to question the government and its work.

-This has been widely used by citizens and media to uncover corruption, progress in government work, expenses-related information, etc.

~Empower citizens to question the government

~ The Act promotes transparency and accountability in the working of the government

~The act also helps in containing corruption in the government and works for the people in a better way

~The act envisages building better-informed citizens who would keep necessary vigil about the functioning of the government machinery.

*RTI Amendment Bill, 2013 removes political parties from the ambit of the definition of public authorities and hence from the purview of the RTI Act

*The draft provision 2017 which provides for closure of case in case of death of applicant can lead to more attacks on the lives of whistleblowers

*The proposed RTI Amendment Act 2018 is aimed at giving the Centre the power to fix the tenures and salaries of State and Central Information Commissioners, which are statutorily protected under the RTI Act. The move will dilute the autonomy and independence of CIC.

~The Act proposes to replace the fixed 5 year tenure with as much prescribed by the government

No - Leave granted to a suspended employee

90 days before from date of suspension must be reviewed

Rule 11 Chargesheet has no witness

Rule 14 Chargesheet should contain names of witness

Country first implemented RTI - Sweden

RTI came into force on12 Oct 2005

First RTI State - Tamil

First RTI movement was started in Rajasthan in 1994 to fight against local corruption and exploitation by Majdur Kisan Shakti Sangathan

1. Consider the following statements regarding the competent authority under the RTI Act, 2005

Competent Authority means

1. CJI in SC

2. CJ of HC in HC

3. the Administrator under Article 239 of Constitution of India

a. 1&2

b. 2&3

c. 1&3

d. 1,2&3

Ans.

2. Under RTI which is not an objective of Act?

a. promoting transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority

b. reducing corruption and promoting good governance

c. Empowering citizens and enhancing their participation in governance

d. Providing unlimited access to classified information

Ans.

3. Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act pertain to

a. information that may cause a breach of privilege of Parliament

b. Information that may prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India

c. Personal information that can be withheld if it serves a public interest

d. Information relating to trade secrets and intellectual property

Ans.

4. Obligations of Public Authority under RTI Act

1. every public authority shall maintain all its records duly catalogued and indexed in a manner and the form which facilitates the RTI Act

2. every public authority shall publish the particulars of its organisation functions and duties

3. every information shall be disseminated widely and in such a manner which is easily accessible to the public.

4. All materials shall be disseminated taking into consideration the cost effectiveness, local language and the most effective method of communication in that local area and the information should be easily accessible.

a. 1 only

b. 1&2 only

c. 1,2,3 only

d. 1,2,3,4

Ans.

5. not obligation of public authority to publish information on public domain?

a. powers and duties of its officers and employees

b. norms set by it for the discharge of its functions

c. information received in confidence from foreign government

d. names, designations and other particulars of the public information officer

Ans.

6. exemption from disclosure of information under RTI Act

1. details in respect of information, available to or held by it, reduced in an electronic form

2. information which has been expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law or tribunal or the disclosure of which may constitute contempt of court

3. provide reasons for its administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to be affected person

4. information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders

Which is correct

a. 1&2 only

b. 1&3 only

c. 2&4

d. 3&4

Ans.

7. section of RTI Act deals with penalties for non-compliance by public authorities>

a. 27

b. 20

c. 10

d. 16

Ans. Section 20(1)

8. not a ground for rejection of RTI application

a. vague / unclear application

b. application filed by an unauthorised person

c. application requesting sensitive defence - related information

d. application seeking information from a private entity

Ans.

9. RTI based on which FR

a. Equality 14

b. Freedom of Speech and Expression 19

c. Life & Personal Liberty - 21

d. Exploitation 23

Ans. b. freedom of speech & expression 19

10. not correct about RTI

a. RTI Bill has been passed by both Houses and received assent of the President on 15th June 2005

b. Any citizen may request information about the activities of the public authority.

c. there is no nominal application fee that is needed to pay to get information under RTI

d. RTI Amendment 2019 (24 of 2019) came on 24 Oct 2019.

Ans.

11. CIC and IC shall be appointed by the President on recommendation of a committee consisting of

1. PM as Chairperson

2. Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha

3. Union Cabinet Minister nominated by PM

a. 1&2

b. 1,2,3

c. 1&3

d. 2&3

Ans.

12. power ans function of IC to receive & inquire into a complaint from any person

RTI in brief

THE RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT, 2005

ARRANGEMENT OF SECTIONS

CHAPTER I PRELIMINARY (Section 1 & 2)

1. Short title, extent and commencement.

2. Definitions.

CHAPTER II RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES Section (3 to 11)

3. Right to information.

4. Obligations of public authorities.

5. Designation of Public Information Officers.

6. Request for obtaining information.

7. Disposal of request.

8. Exemption from disclosure of information.

9. Grounds for rejection to access in certain cases.

10. Severability.

11. Third party information.

CHAPTER III THE CENTRAL INFORMATION COMMISSION (Section 12-14)

12. Constitution of Central Information Commission.

13. Terms of office and conditions of service.

14. Removal of Chief Information Commissioner or Information Commissioner

CHAPTER IV THE STATE INFORMATION COMMISSION (Section 15-17)

15. Constitution of State Information Commission.

16. Term of office and conditions of service.

17. Removal of State Chief Information Commissioner or State Information Commissioner.

CHAPTER V POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES (Section 18-20)

18. Powers and functions of Information Commissions.

19. Appeal

20. Penalties

CHAPTER VI MISCELLANEOUS (Section 21-31)

21. Protection of action taken in good faith.

22. Act to have overriding effect.

23. Bar ofjurisdiction of courts.

24. Act not to apply to certain organisations.

25. Monitoring and reporting.

26. Appropriate Government to prepare programmes.

27. Power to make rules by appropriate Government.

28. Power to make rules by competent authority.

29. Laying of rules.

30. Power to remove difficulties.

31. Repeal.

THE FIRST SCHEDULE.

THE SECOND SCHEDULE

THE RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT, 2005 ACT

No. 22 OF 2005

[15th June, 2005.]

An Act to provide for setting out the practical regime of right to information for citizens to secure access to information under the control of public authorities, in order to promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority, the constitution of a Central Information Commission and State Information Commissions and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

WHEREAS the Constitution of India has established democratic Republic; AND

WHEREAS democracy requires an informed citizenly and transparency of information which are vital to its functioning and also to contain corruption and to hold Governments are their instrumentalities accountable to the governed;

AND WHEREAS revelation of information in actual practice is likely to conflict with other public interests including efficient operations of the Governments, optimum use of limited fiscal resources and the preservation of confidentiality of sensitive information;

AND WHEREAS it is necessary to harmonise these conflicting interests while preserving the paramountcy of the democratic ideal;

Now, THEREFORE, it is expedient to provide for furnishing certain information to citizens who desire to have it.

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Fifty-sixth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—

CHAPTER I

PRELIMINARY

1. Short title, extent and commencement.—

(1) This Act may be called the Right to Information Act, 2005.

(2) It extends to the whole of India***.

(3) The provisions of sub-section (1) of section 4, sub-sections (1) and (2) of section 5, sections 12, 13, 15,16, 24, 27 and 28 shall come into force at once, and the remaining provisions of this Act shall come into force on the one hundred and twentieth day of its enactment.

2. Definitions.— In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,—

(a) "appropriate Government" means in relation to a public authority which is established, constituted, owned, controlled or substantially financed by funds provided directly or indirectly—

(i) by the Central Government or the Union territory administration, the Central Government;

(ii) by the State Government, the State Government;

(b) "Central Information Commission" means the Central Information Commission constituted under sub-section (1) of section 12;

(c) "Central Public Information Officer" means the Central Public Information Officer designated under sub-section (1) and includes a Central Assistant Public Information Officer designated as such under sub-section (2) of section 5;

(d) "Chief Information Commissioner" and "Information Commissioner" mean the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioner appointed under sub-section (3) of section 12; I. The words "except the State of Jammu and Kashmir" omitted by Act 34 of 2019, s. 95 and the Fifth Schedule (w.e.f. 3 1-10-2019). 3 (e) "competent authority" means— (i) the Speaker in the case of the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of a State or a Union territory having such Assembly and the Chainnan in the case of the Council of States or Legislative Council of a State; (ii) the Chief Justice of India in the case of the Supreme Court; (iii) the Chief Justice of the High Court in the case of a High Court; (iv) the President or the Governor, as the case may be, in the case of other authorities established or constituted by or under the Constitution; (v) the administrator appointed under article 239 of the Constitution; (/) 'information" means any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks. contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force; (g) "prescribed" means prescribed by rules made under this Act by the appropriate Government or the competent authority, as the case may be; (Ii) "public authority" means any authority or body or institution of self- government established or constituted— (a) by or under the Constitution; (b) by any other law made by Parliament; (c) by any other law made by State Legislature; (ci) by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government, and includes any— (i) body owned, controlled or substantially financed; (ii) non-Government organisation substantially financed, directly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate Government; (i) "record" includes— (a) any document, manuscript and file; (b) any microfilm, microfiche and facsimile copy of a document; (c) any reproduction of image or images embodied in such microfilm (whether enlarged or not); and (ci) any other material produced by a computer or any other device; (I) "right to information" means the right to information accessible under this Act which is held by or under the control of any public authority and includes the right to— (i) inspection of work, documents, records; (ii) taking notes, extracts or certified copies of documents or records; (iii) taking certified samples of material; (iv) obtaining information in the form of diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or in any other electronic mode or through printouts where such information is stored in a computer or in any other device; (k) "State Information Commission" means the State Information Commission constituted under sub-section (1) of section 15;

Table of Precedence

TABLE OF PRECEDENCE
1. President2. Vice-President3. Prime Minister4. Governors of States within their respective States5. Former Presidents5A. Deputy Prime Minister6. Chief Justice of India Speaker of Lok Sabha7. Cabinet Ministers of the Union. Chief Ministers of States within their respective States Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission Former Prime Ministers Leaders of Opposition in Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha7A. Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration8. Ambassadors Extraordinary and Plenipotentiary and High Commissioners of Commonwealthcountries accredited to India Chief Ministers of States outside their respective States Governors of States outside their respective States)9. Judges of Supreme Court9A Chairperson, Union Public Service Commission Chief Election Commissioner Comptroller & Auditor General of India10. Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha Deputy Chief Ministers of States Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha Members of the Planning CommissionMinisters of State of the Union {and any other Minister in the Ministry of Defence for defencematters}11. Attorney General of India. Cabinet Secretary. Lieutenant Governors within their respective Union Territories12. Chiefs of Staff holding the rank of full General or equivalent rank.13. Envoys Extraordinary and Ministers Plenipotentiary accredited to India.14. Chairmen and Speakers of State Legislatures within their respective States. Chief Justices of High Courts within their respective jurisdictionsPage 2 of 515. Cabinet Ministers in States within their respective StatesChief Ministers of Union Territories and Chief Executive Councillor, Delhi within their respectiveUnion Territories Deputy Ministers of the Union16. Officiating Chiefs of Staff holding the rank of Lieutenant General or equivalent rank.17. Chairman, Central Administrative Tribunal. Chairman, Minorities Commission Chairperson, National Commission for Scheduled Castes Chairperson, National Commission for Scheduled TribesChief Justices of High Courts outside their respective jurisdictionsPuisne Judges of High Courts within their respective jurisdictions18. Cabinet Ministers in States outside their respective States Chairmen and Speakers of State Legislatures outside their respective States Chairman, Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Commission Deputy Chairmen and Deputy Speakers of State Legislatures within their respective StatesMinisters of State in States within their respective StatesMinisters of Union Territories and Executive Councilors, Delhi, within their respective UnionTerritories.Speakers of Legislative Assemblies in Union Territories and Chairman of Delhi MetropolitanCouncil within their respective Union Territories.19. Chief Commissioners of Union Territories not having Councils of Ministers, within theirrespective Union Territories. Deputy Ministers in States within their respective States.Deputy Speakers of Legislative Assemblies in Union Territories and Deputy Chairman ofmetropolitan Council Delhi, within their respective Union Territories.20. Deputy Chairmen and Deputy Speakers of State Legislatures, outside their respective states. Ministers of State in States outside their respective States Puisne Judges of High Courts outside their respective jurisdictions.21. Members of Parliament.22. Deputy Ministers in State outside their respective States23. Army Commanders/ Vice-Chief of the Army Staff or equivalent in other servicesChief Secretaries to State Governments within their respective StatesCommissioner for Linguistic MinoritiesCommissioner for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled TribesMembers, Minorities CommissionMembers, National Commission for Scheduled CastesMembers, National Commission for Scheduled TribesOfficers of the rank of full General or equivalent rankSecretaries to the Government of India (including officers holding this office ex-officio).Secretary, Minorities Commission.Secretary, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Commission.Secretary to the President.Secretary to the Prime Minister.Secretary, Rajya Sabha/Lok SabhaSolicitor General Vice-Chairman, Central Administrative TribunalPage 3 of 524. Officers of the rank of Lieutenant General or equivalent rank.25. Additional Secretaries to the Government of India.Additional Solicitor GeneralAdvocate Generals of States.Chairman, Tariff CommissionCharge d’ Affairs and Acting High Commissioners a pied and ad interimChief Ministers of Union Territories and Chief Executive Councillor, Delhi outside theirrespective Union TerritoriesChief Secretaries of State Governments outside their respective States.Deputy Comptroller and Auditor GeneralDeputy Speakers of Legislative Assemblies in Union Territories and Deputy Chairman,Delhi Metropolitan Council, outside their respective Union Territories.Director, Central Bureau of InvestigationDirector General, Border Security Force.Director General, Central Reserve Police.Director, Intelligence BureauLieutenant Governors outside their respective Union Territories. Members, Central Administrative TribunalMembers, Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices CommissionMembers, Union Public Service CommissionMinisters of Union Territories and Executive Councillors, Delhi, outside their respective UnionTerritories.Principal Staff Officers of the Armed Forces of the rank of major General or equivalent rankSpeakers of Legislative Assemblies in Union Territories and Chairman of Delhi, MetropolitanCouncil, outside their respective Union Territories26. Joint Secretaries to the Government of India and officers of equivalent rank. Officers of the rank of Major-General or equivalent rankNOTESNote 1 The order in this Table of Precedence is meant for State and Ceremonial occasions andhas no application in the day-to-day business of Government.Note 2 Persons in the Table of Precedence will take rank in order of the number of the articles.The entries in the same article are arranged alphabetically. Those included in the samearticle will take precedence inter se according to date of entry into that article. However,where the dignitaries of different States and Union Territories included in the same articleare present at a function outside their States or Union Territories and there is difficulty inascertaining their dates of entry, they may be assigned precedence inter se in thealphabetical order of the name of States and Union Territories concerned after those whoseprecedence is determined according to date of entry into that article.Note 3 In Article 7, former Prime Ministers will take precedence over the Cabinet Ministers of theUnion and the Leaders of Opposition in the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha. The ChiefMinisters of States within their respective States will take precedence over the CabinetMinisters of the Union in official functions held in the respective States.Note 4 In Article 8: – (a) Ambassadors Extraordinary and Plenipotentiary and High Commissioners ofCommonwealth countries accredited to India will en bloc rank above Governors of Statesoutside their respective States;Page 4 of 5 (b) Governors of States outside their respective States will en bloc rank above Chief Ministersof States outside their respective States.Note 5 The Ministry of External Affairs may assign appropriate ranks to foreign dignitaries andIndian Ambassadors, High Commissioners and Ministers Plenipotentiary during their visitto India.Note 6 Notwithstanding the procedure laid down in Note 2, the rank inter se and precedence of thepersons in Article 10 shall be assigned in the following order: -
(1) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha.(2) Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha.(3) Ministers of State of the Union and any other Minister in the Ministry of Defence fordefence matters.(4) Deputy Chief Ministers of States.(5) Members of Planning Commission.However, the Deputy Chief Ministers of States outside their respective States will alwaysrank below all other dignitaries figuring in this article.Note 7 The Chairmen of State Legislative Councils will rank above the Speakers of LegislativeAssemblies in cases where they were elected on the same date.Note 8 When Members of Parliament are invited en bloc to major State functions, the enclosuresreserved for them should be next to the Chief Justice, Speaker of the Lok Sabha,Ambassadors etc.Note 9 Speakers of Legislative Assemblies in Union Territories and Chairman of the DelhiMetropolitan Council, Delhi, will take precedence over Ministers and ExecutiveCouncillors, included in the same article.Note 10 In Article 23: -
(a) Secretaries in the Ministry of External Affairs other than the Foreign Secretary, betweenthemselves, will take precedence in the order of their seniority in Grade-I of the IndianForeign Service and both of them will take precedence after the Foreign Secretary.(b) Members of the Minorities Commission and the Scheduled Castes and Schedule TribesCommission will always take precedence over the Secretaries of these Commissions;(c) In official functions held at Delhi/New Delhi, Army Commanders/Vice Chief of the ArmyStaff or equivalent in other Services will always rank after Secretaries to the Governmentof India.Note 11 In Article 25: -(a) Additional Secretaries in the Ministry of External Affairs, among themselves, will takeprecedence in the order of their seniority in Grade- II of the Indian Foreign Service;(b) Additional Solicitor General will take precedence above the Advocate General of States;(c) Lieutenant Governors will take precedence over the Chief Ministers and Chief ExecutiveCouncillor, Delhi, and the latter will take precedence over Speakers of LegislativeAssemblies and Chairman, Metropolitan Council, Delhi;Page 5 of 5(d) Deputy Speakers of Legislative Assemblies of Union Territories and Deputy Chairman ofDelhi Metropolitan Council will take precedence after Ministers of Union Territories andExecutive Councillors, Delhi.Note 12 For the purpose of Article 26, the posts equivalent to the posts of Joint Secretaries to theGovernment of India will be determined by the Ministry of Home Affairs. (K.C. Madappa)Secretary to the President

- Chief Accounting Authority of a Ministry/ Department is:

Controller General of Accounts in the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, is the Principal Accounting Adviser to Government of India and is responsible for establishing and maintaining a technically sound Management Accounting System.

- CPSEs are those companies which are under the administrative control of Central Ministry/ Department and where the equity held by the Central Government is - more than 50%.

- Statutory Bodies - NIA, NHRC, Lokpal, Lokayukta, CVC, CIC

- Repository of technical information and also advises the department on various aspects of matters dealt by them - Attached Offices

- To facilitate quicker decision-making, channels of submission should not be more than - four stages

- Secretary - Administrative Head of the Ministry/ Dept, Principal Advisor to the Minister on all policy and the administration within the Ministry/ Dept

- Special Secretary/ Additional Secretary/ Joint Secretary - One or more wings may be established with Special Secretary/ Additional Secretary / Joint Secretary, in-charge of each wing under the charge of Secretary.

- Director/ Deputy Secretary - holds the charge of a Secretariate Division and is responsible for the disposal of Government business dealt within the Division under the charge.

- Under Secretary - in-Charge of the Branch in the Ministry/ Dept consisting of one or more Sections.

-Section Officer - head of the section

- Subsistence grant means a monthly grant made to a Government servant who is not in receipt of pay or leave salary.

Leave Rules

https://dopt.gov.in/sites/default/files/Revised_AIS_Rule_Vol_I_Rule_03.pdf

🛫 1. Earned Leave (EL)

🗓️ What it is: Leave you “earn” by working.

📈 Accrual: 30 days/year (15 on Jan 1 & 15 on July 1). In North-East Cadre – 40 days/year (20 + 20).

📦 Carry forward limit: Max 300 days

🧾 Usage: For vacation, personal reasons, LTC, or preparatory to retirement.

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Aditi works continuously and earns 15 days of EL every 6 months. She uses 10 days to go on a family trip to Kerala.

🔍 Hidden tip:

Unused joining time (up to 15 days) is added to EL balance.

EL for officers in NE cadre = 3⅓ days/month instead of 2½ days.

💰 2. Half-Pay Leave (HPL)

📅 What it is: Leave you earn at half-pay for each month of service.

📈 Accrual: 10 days every 6 months.

💵 Pay: 50% of your usual pay.

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Ramesh has 120 days of HPL. He takes 20 days off for minor surgery, drawing half salary.

🔍 Hidden tip:

HPL is the backbone for other types like commuted leave and leave not due.

Automatically credited even if on EOL or under suspension.

🔄 3. Commuted Leave (CL)

💳 What it is: You "convert" HPL into full-pay leave — but twice the days are deducted.

🩺 Requires: Medical certificate OR

📚 Public-interest course certified by govt.

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Meena needs 20 days for medical rest. She has 100 HPL days. She takes 20 days as commuted leave, and 40 HPL days are deducted.

🔍 Hidden tip:

If you resign without returning to duty, CL turns back into HPL and you must repay the excess salary.

Can be granted without medical certificate if taken after maternity/CCL.

🚫 4. Leave Not Due (LND)

📊 What it is: Advance HPL — taken before it's actually earned.

🩺 Condition: Must be for medical reasons only.

🕓 Max limit: 360 days in entire service.

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Zafar has no leave but needs urgent back surgery. He is granted 30 days of LND and is expected to "earn" it back later.

🔍 Hidden tip:

If you resign before earning it back, you have to refund the leave salary.

Not allowed as preparatory to retirement.

🚷 5. Extraordinary Leave (EOL)

🌐 What it is: Leave without pay.

📋 Granted when:

No other leave is available

Officer requests it even when other leave is available

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Kavya wants to attend a year-long unpaid volunteer program abroad. She takes 1-year EOL with prior approval.

🔍 Hidden tip:

EOL doesn’t count for leave accrual unless contribution is paid (foreign service).

Retrospective EOL can be used to regularize unauthorised absence.

♿ 6. Special Disability Leave (SDL)

💥 What it is: Granted if injured while on duty, including armed forces

🧾 Needs: Medical certificate and proof of official injury

🕓 Max: 24 months in total

💵 Pay: Full salary for 120 days; then EL-style salary for rest (if opted)

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Sandeep is attacked during a riot control operation. He gets 8 months of SDL to recover.

🔍 Hidden tip:

Doesn’t get debited from your normal leave account.

Can be used multiple times if disability recurs.

🎓 7. Study Leave

📚 What it is: Leave to pursue higher studies (India or abroad)

📜 Conditions:

In public interest

Approved by Govt.

Usually for 1–2 years

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Sneha gets study leave for 12 months to attend a public policy course at LSE.

🔍 Hidden tip:

Doesn’t count as earned leave

Salary continues during leave, subject to rules

Often requires bond or service commitment afterward

👶 8. Maternity Leave (ML)

👩‍🍼 Who: Female officer with less than 2 surviving children

🕓 Duration: 180 days

💵 Pay: Full

🧾 No debit from leave account

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Ruchi has her first baby and is granted 180 days of paid maternity leave.

📝 Bonus:

Up to 2 years of leave (commuted, HPL, LND) can follow ML.

💔 Miscarriage/abortion: 6 weeks allowed with medical proof.

👼 9. Child Adoption Leave

👩 Who: Female officer adopting a child under 1 year

🕓 Duration: 180 days

💵 Pay: Full

🧾 No debit from leave account

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Neelam adopts a 3-month-old baby. She gets 180 days of child adoption leave.

👨‍🍼 10. Paternity Leave

👨 Who: Male officer with < 2 surviving children

🕓 Duration: 15 days

🕐 When: Up to 15 days before or 6 months after childbirth/adoption

🧾 No debit, full pay

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Varun takes 15 days off when his daughter is born.

🔍 Hidden tip:

Must be taken within 6 months — or it lapses.

Also available for adoption by male officers.

🧒 11. Child Care Leave (CCL)

👩 Who: Female officer with children under 18

🕓 Duration: Up to 730 days in service

🧾 Not debited

💵 Full pay

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Anuja takes 2 months off to care for her son undergoing surgery.

🔍 Hidden tip:

Can be taken in multiple spells

Leave (including CL and LND) up to 1 year can follow CCL

🪙 12. Leave Encashment

💰 When:

At retirement/death: Max 300 days (EL + HPL)

LTC: 10 days at a time, max 60 days during service

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Mohan retires with 250 days EL + 70 days HPL → Gets cash for max 300 days

🧮 13. Leave Salary

💵 What you earn while on leave:

Type of Leave Leave Salary

Earned leave Full pay

Half-pay leave 50% of pay

Commuted leave Full pay

Maternity/Paternity/CCL Full pay

Extraordinary leave ❌ No salary

Special disability Full (first 120 days), then optional half-pay/EL debit

1️⃣. Officer Mishra is going on maternity leave 👶. She has one child already. How many days of maternity leave can she avail under the rules?

A. 90 days

B. 180 days

C. 240 days

D. 365 days

✅ Correct Answer: B. 180 days

2️⃣. Officer Khan, while on leave in London 🇬🇧, is suddenly recalled to duty. What is he entitled to for his journey back?

A. No benefits

B. Leave salary only

C. Free passage to India, travel allowance, and leave salary

D. Bonus and joining time

✅ Correct Answer: C. Free passage to India, travel allowance, and leave salary

3️⃣. Officer Priya takes 15 days less than her entitled joining time while relocating. How is this counted? 🚆

A. Lost forever

B. Converted to casual leave

C. Credited as earned leave (up to 15 days max)

D. Not allowed under any condition

✅ Correct Answer: C. Credited as earned leave (up to 15 days max)

4️⃣. Officer Rajesh took 10 days of leave for child adoption 👼. What is the maximum adoption leave he can take?

A. 60 days

B. 180 days

C. 90 days

D. 30 days

✅ Correct Answer: B. 180 days

5️⃣. Officer Meera, with two kids, applies for maternity leave after a miscarriage 💔. Is she eligible?

A. No

B. Yes, but only for 6 weeks with medical certificate

C. Only for 3 days

D. Only if sanctioned by the Cabinet

✅ Correct Answer: B. Yes, but only for 6 weeks with medical certificate

6️⃣. Officer Rohan, serving in Nagaland 🏞️, asks about his earned leave credit. How much earned leave is credited per year for him?

A. 30 days

B. 20 days

C. 40 days

D. 15 days

✅ Correct Answer: C. 40 days

7️⃣. Officer Sunita takes commuted leave on medical grounds. How is this debited from her leave account? 🏥

A. Equal number of half-pay leave

B. Twice the number of half-pay leave

C. As earned leave

D. No debit

✅ Correct Answer: B. Twice the number of half-pay leave

8️⃣. Officer Arjun hasn't returned from leave for over a year without permission 🚫. What can happen?

A. Suspension

B. Demotion

C. Deemed to have resigned from service

D. Warning letter only

✅ Correct Answer: C. Deemed to have resigned from service

9️⃣. Officer Neha is retiring this month. What's the max number of days of earned + half-pay leave for which she can get cash equivalent? 💸

A. 150 days

B. 180 days

C. 300 days

D. Unlimited

✅ Correct Answer: C. 300 days

🔟. Officer Vinay wants to go abroad during earned leave for a private trip ✈️. What must he do first?

A. Inform his office after returning

B. Take approval from his district collector

C. Obtain prior approval of Government of India

D. Buy travel insurance

✅ Correct Answer: C. Obtain prior approval of Government of India

1️⃣. Officer Anjali is about to retire in 3 months 🧓. What’s the maximum earned leave she can take as preparatory to retirement?

A. 180 days

B. 240 days

C. 300 days

D. 90 days

✅ Correct Answer: C. 300 days

2️⃣. Officer Shyam wants to combine study leave with earned leave to attend a course abroad 🎓✈️. Is this allowed?

A. No, study leave cannot be combined with any leave

B. Yes, with prior government approval

C. Only if the course is less than 6 months

D. Only with approval of the university

✅ Correct Answer: B. Yes, with prior government approval

3️⃣. Officer Tina took 240 days of earned leave at once to go abroad 🌍. Under what condition is this permitted?

A. Leave is spent in India

B. Leave is partly spent in Nepal or Bhutan

C. Entire leave or part of it is spent outside India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Nepal, and Pakistan

D. She is posted in the North East

✅ Correct Answer: C. Entire leave or part of it is spent outside the region specified

4️⃣. Officer Rahul dies while in service 😔. What happens to his earned leave balance?

A. It is forfeited

B. It is encashed and paid to the family (max 300 days)

C. Only half the balance is paid

D. It goes into pension

✅ Correct Answer: B. It is encashed and paid to the family (max 300 days)

5️⃣. Officer Lakshmi has already taken 60 days of commuted leave for medical reasons 🏥. Can she take 60 more for a certified study course in public interest?

A. No, 60 is the maximum

B. Yes, if government certifies the course is in public interest

C. Only if she repays salary

D. Only if the course is in India

✅ Correct Answer: B. Yes, if government certifies the course is in public interest

6️⃣. Officer Akash is under suspension and wants to opt for voluntary retirement 😐. Can he get leave encashment?

A. Never

B. Yes, if later found innocent

C. Only if Central Govt. certifies suspension was unjustified

D. Only for half-pay leave

✅ Correct Answer: C. Only if Central Govt. certifies suspension was unjustified

7️⃣. Officer Namita is on maternity leave. Can she combine it with other leave types? 👩‍🍼

A. No

B. Yes, but only with commuted leave

C. Yes, with any kind of leave due and admissible

D. Yes, but only up to 30 days

✅ Correct Answer: C. Yes, with any kind of leave due and admissible

8️⃣. Officer Iqbal served for 11 months before retirement. How is earned leave credited for him? 📆

A. 30 days

B. 2.5 days per month

C. 1 day per week

D. Only half-pay leave is credited

✅ Correct Answer: B. 2.5 days per month

9️⃣. Officer Deepika, on extraordinary leave for 4 months, asks if she’ll earn full earned leave for that period 🧾. What’s the rule?

A. Full earned leave is credited

B. No leave is credited at all

C. Leave is credited but reduced by 1/10th of EOL (max 15 days)

D. Half-pay leave is deducted

✅ Correct Answer: C. Leave is credited but reduced by 1/10th of EOL (max 15 days)

🔟. Officer Praveen wants to resign while on ‘leave not due’. What happens to that leave? 🚪

A. It becomes earned leave

B. It is cancelled from the start, and salary is recovered

C. It gets converted to maternity leave

D. It’s waived off on resignation

✅ Correct Answer: B. It is cancelled from the start, and salary is recovered

Q1. Which of the following periods will be counted as "duty" under the AIS (Leave) Rules, 1955?

Period of joining time

Time spent on probation

Period of extraordinary leave (EOL) with contribution paid

Time spent on foreign service without leave contribution

A. 1 & 2

B. 1, 2 & 3

C. All of the above

D. Only 1 & 3

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 & 3

Explanation: As per Rule 2(c) and Rule 4 Explanation, duty includes joining time, probation, and foreign service if contributions are paid. Time on foreign service without contributions does not count.

Q2. Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding earned leave crediting?

Leave is credited in two installments of 15 days each on 1st Jan and 1st July.

If the officer is in North East Cadre, the installments are 20 days each.

If an officer retires mid-year, earned leave is credited for full 30 days in advance.

Joining time not availed can be credited as earned leave (max 15 days).

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1, 2 & 4 only

C. 2 & 4 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 & 4 only

Explanation: Clause 10(1)(a), 10(1)(g), and North East provisos confirm 1, 2, 4. Clause 10(1)(e) says retirement credit is prorated (not full 30 days).

Q3. Officer Ravi took 120 days of earned leave in India 🇮🇳. Now he requests additional 60 days for travel abroad. Under Rule 11, what is the position?

A. Permissible up to 240 days if part of leave is spent abroad

B. Not allowed – Max 180 days is the cap

C. Allowed only if 120 days or less are spent in India

D. Allowed only if Central Govt. certifies it as official duty

✅ Correct Answer: C. Allowed only if 120 days or less are spent in India

Explanation: Rule 11(2) permits earned leave up to 240 days if part is abroad, but total period spent in India cannot exceed 120 days.

Q4. Which of the following can be combined with maternity leave? 👶

Commuted leave

Leave not due

Study leave

Half-pay leave

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1, 2 & 4 only

C. 1, 2, 3 & 4

D. Only 2 & 4

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 & 4 only

Explanation: Maternity leave can be combined with leave of any kind due and admissible, but not study leave. Rule 18(3) and Note.

Q5. In which of the following cases can commuted leave be granted without a medical certificate?

For a certified course of study in public interest

When combined with maternity leave

When granted during child care leave continuation

When the officer is in NE Cadre

A. Only 1

B. 1 & 3 only

C. 2 & 3 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1 & 3 only

Explanation: Rule 13(2) allows commuted leave without medical certificate for study leave in public interest, and Rule 18D(4) allows it during CCL continuation. North East cadre has no such provision.

Q6. Which of the following conditions can result in deemed resignation of a member of the Service? ❌

Absence without authorisation > 1 year after leave expiry

Continuous absence from duty > 5 years

Continuation on foreign service beyond approved period

Joining private employment without government approval

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1, 2 & 3 only

C. All of the above

D. Only 4

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 & 3 only

Explanation: Rule 7(2)(a-c) covers all three cases. Joining private employment without permission leads to disciplinary action, not automatic resignation.

Q7. Which statements about “Leave Not Due” are correct? 🩺

It is granted only on medical certificate.

It is limited to 360 days for the entire service.

It is not allowed as preparatory to retirement.

It can be cancelled and recovered if officer resigns without earning it.

A. All of the above

B. 1, 2 & 4 only

C. 1, 2 & 3 only

D. Only 1 & 4

✅ Correct Answer: A. All of the above

Explanation: All points are consistent with Rule 14 and Govt. orders under Rule 14.

Q8. When can extraordinary leave (EOL) be sanctioned? 📄

When no other leave is available

When officer applies for it even if other leave is available

Retrospectively, to regularize absence without leave

Without debiting leave account

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1, 2 & 3 only

C. All of the above

D. Only 1 & 3

✅ Correct Answer: C. All of the above

Explanation: Rule 15 (1–3) confirms all options, including retrospective sanction and non-debiting.

Q9. Which of the following officers can earn 3⅓ days of earned leave per month instead of 2½ days? 📆

Officers posted in Nagaland

Officers on inter-cadre deputation to Tripura

Officers serving in Delhi

Officers borne on North East cadre

A. 1, 2 & 4 only

B. 1 & 2 only

C. All of the above

D. Only 2 & 3

✅ Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 & 4 only

Explanation: Rule 10(1)(d) Proviso – Officers in North East cadre or on inter-cadre deputation to NE states get 3⅓ days per completed month.

Q10. Officer Zoya availed 90 days of commuted leave for a study course. Later, she resigns without returning to duty. What happens? 🎓

A. She must refund the difference between commuted and half-pay leave

B. Leave is considered earned leave

C. She can keep full leave salary

D. No recovery is made if course is approved

✅ Correct Answer: A. She must refund the difference between commuted and half-pay leave

Explanation: Rule 13(4) — Commuted leave is reversed to half-pay if officer resigns without return.

⚖️ Advanced MCQs Covering Entire AIS (Leave) Rules, 1955

Q1. Officer Amar is on half-pay leave. Under what circumstances can he draw full leave salary during this period?

If the half-pay leave is converted into commuted leave

If combined with maternity leave

If the half-pay leave is used during child care leave continuation

If approved under special disability leave rules

A. 1 & 3 only

B. 1, 3 & 4 only

C. 2, 3 & 4 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1, 3 & 4 only

Q2. Officer Raghav has 150 days of earned leave and 120 days of half-pay leave at credit at the time of superannuation. What is the maximum leave encashment he is eligible for under Rule 20A?

A. 150 days

B. 270 days

C. 300 days

D. 240 days

✅ Correct Answer: C. 300 days

Q3. Officer Sneha was on foreign service out of India and immediately took earned leave upon return. How is her leave salary computed?

Based on the actual salary drawn in foreign service

Based on salary she would have drawn if on duty in India

With reference to contributions paid to the Consolidated Fund

Based on leave salary rates under foreign employer's rules

A. 1 & 4 only

B. 2 & 3 only

C. Only 2

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: C. Only 2

Q4. Officer Nitesh took 180 days of earned leave abroad, and now seeks an extension of 60 more days abroad. What condition must he meet for this to be permissible under Rule 11(2)?

A. Half the leave must be in India

B. The additional 60 days must be spent entirely outside India

C. Total foreign stay must not exceed 90 days

D. Central Government must fund the trip

✅ Correct Answer: B. The additional 60 days must be spent entirely outside India

Q5. Under what conditions can a member of AIS be deemed to have resigned from service as per Rule 7(2)?

Absent without authorization for over one year from sanctioned leave expiry

Absent from duty for a continuous period exceeding five years

On foreign service beyond approved tenure

Returns to duty before expiry of leave period

A. 1, 2 & 3 only

B. 1 & 2 only

C. All of the above

D. Only 4

✅ Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 & 3 only

Q6. Officer Kavita took 60 days of study leave, followed by 180 days of maternity leave, and then wants to take 60 days of commuted leave. Is this permissible?

Study leave and maternity leave can be combined

Commuted leave after maternity leave is permitted up to 60 days without a medical certificate

Commuted leave is only for medical reasons

All such combinations are prohibited under Rule 13

A. Only 1

B. 1 & 2

C. 1, 2 & 3

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1 & 2

Q7. Officer Ashok dies in service while on extraordinary leave. Which statements are true?

No leave salary is payable for the EOL period

Cash equivalent of leave salary can still be paid to his family

Earned and half-pay leave standing to credit are encashable

EOL counts as qualifying service for encashment

A. 1, 2 & 3

B. Only 1 & 3

C. 2 & 4 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 & 3

Q8. Officer Malini is on foreign service in India. Which of the following must occur for her to go on leave under AIS Leave Rules?

Must be relieved of her foreign duty

Must get foreign employer’s approval

Must contribute to leave salary

Must debit the leave from foreign employer's rules

A. Only 1

B. 1 & 3

C. 1, 2 & 3

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: A. Only 1

Q9. Which of the following leave types are not debited from a member’s leave account?

Maternity leave

Special disability leave

Study leave

Paternity leave for adoption

A. Only 1 & 3

B. 1, 2, 3 & 4

C. Only 1 & 4

D. 2, 3 & 4

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1, 2, 3 & 4

Q10. Officer Sameer was dismissed from service on 10th June. How is earned leave credit calculated for the final settlement?

A. Full 15 days for the half-year

B. Only up to 31st May

C. 2½ days per completed calendar month till end of May

D. 2½ days till end of June

✅ Correct Answer: C. 2½ days per completed calendar month till end of May

Q11. Officer Geeta adopts a child aged 8 months. What is the maximum leave she can get under Rule 18A(4)? 👶

A. 1 year

B. 6 months

C. 3 months

D. No leave is granted beyond 6 months of age

✅ Correct Answer: B. 6 months

Q12. When can the Central Government relax any provision of these Leave Rules under Rule 32?

If undue hardship is caused

If the rule leads to an absurd outcome

If the officer is on deputation to UN

If the Member of Service is under suspension

A. 1 & 2 only

B. Only 1

C. 1, 2 & 3

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: A. 1 & 2 only

Q13. Which conditions apply to grant of leave to a probationer if service is being terminated?

Leave cannot go beyond probation period

Leave can exceed probation if approved

Central Government must notify DOPT

Probationer is not eligible for any leave

A. Only 1

B. 1 & 2 only

C. All of the above

D. Only 4

✅ Correct Answer: A. Only 1

Q14. When can an officer be recalled from leave under Rule 22, and what does he receive?

Travel allowance from port to duty station

Leave salary for travel time

Free passage if on leave outside India

No entitlement if recall is for inquiry

A. 1, 2 & 3 only

B. Only 3

C. All of the above

D. 2 & 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 & 3 only

Q1. A member of the Service is dismissed from duty and later reinstated by a tribunal. Regarding his leave account, which of the following apply?

Former service before dismissal counts toward leave

No leave is allowed until a fresh appointment is made

Leave availed during dismissal period is regularized

Leave is credited as if the dismissal never occurred

A. 1 & 3 only

B. Only 1

C. 1 & 4 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: B. Only 1

📘 Rule 30: Only past service is counted. Leave during the dismissed period isn't earned.

Q2. Under what conditions can the government compel an officer to take leave?

Never, unless during suspension

In public interest

On medical unfitness certified by government doctor

With Cabinet Secretary’s approval

A. Only 1

B. 2 & 3 only

C. All of the above

D. Only 3

✅ Correct Answer: A. Only 1

📘 Rule 3(2): Leave cannot be forced unless requested by the officer. Even medical leave cannot be imposed.

Q3. Which of the following are true about leave under foreign service in India?

Leave must be approved by foreign employer

Officer must be relieved from foreign duty

Leave contributions are to be paid

Leave is governed by AIS (Leave) Rules

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 2, 3 & 4 only

C. Only 3 & 4

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: B. 2, 3 & 4 only

📘 Rule 26: Leave cannot be availed unless relieved. Contributions must be paid.

Q4. If an officer is absent after expiry of leave without extension, what happens under Rule 24?

That period is automatically LND

That period becomes half-pay leave

No leave salary is payable for that period

Disciplinary action may follow

A. Only 2 & 3

B. Only 3 & 4

C. 2, 3 & 4

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: C. 2, 3 & 4

📘 Rule 24: Absence = half-pay leave, no salary, and disciplinary action is likely.

Q5. Officer takes commuted leave but resigns before returning to duty. Which of these apply under Rule 13(4)?

Leave becomes half-pay leave

Extra salary must be refunded

Entire leave becomes EOL

No recovery is made if resignation is for health reasons

A. 1, 2 & 4

B. Only 1 & 2

C. All of the above

D. 2 & 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 & 4

📘 Resignation after commuted leave → repayment unless resignation is due to health.

Q6. Under Rule 19, leave can be converted from one type to another retrospectively. Which are valid examples of such conversion?

EOL to half-pay leave when HPL becomes due later

Earned leave to maternity leave

Commuted leave to HPL if officer resigns

Study leave to EOL if not approved by Government

A. 1, 2 & 3

B. 1 & 3 only

C. All of the above

D. Only 3 & 4

✅ Correct Answer: C. All of the above

📘 Rule 19 permits retrospective conversion for adjustment or correction.

Q7. When is the government bound to sanction cash equivalent of leave salary “suo motu”?

Retirement

Death in service

Resignation

Dismissal from service

A. 1 & 2 only

B. All of the above

C. 1, 2 & 3 only

D. 1, 2 & 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: A. 1 & 2 only

📘 Rule 20A: Suo motu encashment is only on retirement or death.

Q8. An officer is placed on foreign service outside India, and immediately after that takes leave. What governs his leave during that period?

Employer’s rules (foreign org)

AIS (Leave) Rules, 1955

Leave conditions pre-decided in MoU

Officer can self-sanction EOL

A. 1 & 3 only

B. Only 2

C. 1, 2 & 3

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: A. 1 & 3 only

📘 Rule 27: Leave outside India governed by foreign employer or negotiated terms, not AIS Leave Rules.

Q9. What is the rule for leave accumulation for a State service officer appointed to AIS for the first 5 years?

EL cap of 300 does not apply

Leave above 300 lapses after 5 years

Cannot earn further leave if balance >300

Can draw encashment after 3 years

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1, 2 & 3 only

C. All of the above

D. Only 1 & 3

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 & 3 only

📘 Rule 10(3): Special provision for State officers entering AIS.

Q10. Which powers have been delegated to Ministries/Departments under Govt of India’s orders for officers under their control?

Conversion of leave under Rule 19

Grant of maternity leave

Grant of commuted leave

Extension beyond 5 years leave

A. Only 1, 2 & 3

B. All of the above

C. 2 & 4 only

D. 1, 3 & 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: A. Only 1, 2 & 3

📘 Delegated powers exclude authority to override Rule 7(1) (max 5 years absence).

Q1. Officer Priya is a probationer and her services are being terminated. Which of the following applies to her leave eligibility?

She can take leave till the expiry of her current probation period

She may not take leave that extends beyond termination

Leave is allowed only with approval of cadre controlling authority

Maternity leave is exempt from this limitation

A. Only 2

B. 1 & 2 only

C. 1, 2 & 4

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: C. 1, 2 & 4

📘 Rule 29: Leave must not extend beyond probation expiry. But maternity leave is allowed as per Rule 18.

Q2. Officer Zainab is sanctioned earned leave from 1st July. When is this leave deemed to commence as per Rule 5?

A. 1st July

B. 30th June

C. Date of handing over charge

D. First public holiday after 1st July

✅ Correct Answer: C. Date of handing over charge

📘 Leave begins on date of transfer of charge and ends day before resuming.

Q3. Officer Ashutosh is on study leave in Germany. He is granted additional 10 days of leave abroad. Who pays the leave salary if no prior agreement exists under Rule 27?

A. His foreign university

B. Government of India

C. Not entitled to any leave salary

D. Ministry of External Affairs

✅ Correct Answer: C. Not entitled to any leave salary

📘 Rule 27(1): If no pre-arrangement with employer, leave outside India is not paid by GoI.

Q4. Officer Simran on deputation to World Bank continues there beyond approved period. Which is the correct outcome under Rule 7(2)?

A. She can apply for ex-post facto approval

B. She is deemed resigned from service

C. Treated as EOL

D. Services extended for 1 year automatically

✅ Correct Answer: B. She is deemed resigned from service

📘 Rule 7(2)(c): Unauthorized continuation in foreign service = resignation unless condoned.

Q5. Officer Anoop is under suspension and draws subsistence allowance below DA threshold. Is he eligible for DA during suspension?

A. No, DA is not allowed during suspension

B. Yes, but only at pensioner rate

C. Yes, if allowance < threshold

D. Only with court permission

✅ Correct Answer: C. Yes, if allowance < threshold

📘 Govt Order under Rule 20: DA is payable if pay/subsistence falls below threshold.

Q6. Officer Vandana is retiring with 310 days of EL + 80 days of HPL. What is the maximum encashment she can get?

A. 310 days

B. 300 days

C. 390 days

D. 240 days

✅ Correct Answer: B. 300 days

📘 Rule 20A: Total encashment is capped at 300 days across EL + HPL.

Q7. An officer overstays sanctioned leave by 15 days. The department wants to regularize it. What options are valid under rules?

Convert it to EOL

Treat it as half-pay leave if balance allows

Recover overpaid salary

Take disciplinary action

A. 1 & 2 only

B. All of the above

C. 1, 2 & 3 only

D. Only 3 & 4

✅ Correct Answer: B. All of the above

📘 Rule 24 + Rule 19: Conversion, recovery & discipline are all valid options.

Q8. Under the Residuary Matters Rules, which applies to AIS officers working with a State Government where AIS rules are silent?

A. They follow Central Govt. Group A rules

B. They follow State Civil Services Class I rules

C. They follow IPS (Cadre) Rules

D. They follow DoPT handbook

✅ Correct Answer: B. They follow State Civil Services Class I rules

📘 As per Residuary Matters Rules, Rule 2(b): For AIS under State Govt.

Q9. Officer Asha adopts a 10-month-old child. What is the maximum total leave (including follow-up leave) she can get under Rule 18A(4)?

A. 180 days

B. 3 months

C. 6 months

D. 1 year

✅ Correct Answer: B. 3 months

📘 Rule 18A(4)(c): Child aged 9–10 months → Max leave = 3 months.

Q10. Who is responsible for maintaining leave accounts of members of AIS under Rule 31?

A. Comptroller and Auditor General

B. Ministry of Personnel

C. The Government (State/Central) concerned

D. Department of Expenditure

✅ Correct Answer: C. The Government (State/Central) concerned

📘 Rule 31(1): Leave account must be maintained by the relevant government.

CGHS

TA Rules

https://dopt.gov.in/sites/default/files/Revised_AIS_Rule_Vol_I_Rule_09.pdf

🧳 Challenging MCQs on AIS Travelling Allowance Rules

(Confusing-style options: Only 1, 1 & 2, All of the above, etc.)

Q1. A member of the Service is travelling on duty by train. Which statements are correct as per Rule 3(1)?

He is entitled to highest class other than air-conditioned by default

He can choose AC travel if first class is unavailable

If travelling in AC class by choice, he always gets AC fare reimbursement

A. Only 1

B. 1 & 2 only

C. 2 & 3 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1 & 2 only

📘 Explanation:

By default, officers are entitled to the highest non-AC class unless Govt. permits AC explicitly.

If first class is not available, officer may opt for AC and claim first-class equivalent fare, not full AC fare.

Q2. Which of the following is true regarding travel allowance to the family of a deceased officer?

Travel must be completed within 6 months of death

Family can claim TA from any station where they were staying, not just last HQ

Full AC fare is reimbursable irrespective of officer’s eligibility

A. Only 1

B. 1 & 2 only

C. All of the above

D. 2 & 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1 & 2 only

📘 Explanation:

Travel must be completed within 6 months after the officer's death

Family may begin journey from any location, but cost is limited to what it would be from last HQ

AC fare is not automatically reimbursable unless the officer was entitled

Q3. In case of retirement, which of the following conditions must be met for TA eligibility under GOI OM (11 July 1960)?

Travel must be to the declared hometown only

The journey may be done during LPR or within 1 year post-retirement

Reimbursement is allowed even if family members travel within 6 months after the officer

A. Only 2

B. 2 & 3 only

C. All of the above

D. 1 & 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: B. 2 & 3 only

📘 Explanation:

Travel need not be to declared hometown — can be any place of permanent settlement

Family can travel up to 6 months after the officer; still eligible

Officer can travel during LPR or within 1 year

Q4. Under which of the following conditions is TA not admissible on retirement?

Officer resigns

Officer retires on invalidation

Temporary officer with 12 years of service

Officer retires to a foreign country

A. Only 1

B. 1 & 4 only

C. 1, 2 & 4 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1 & 4 only

📘 Explanation:

Resignation disqualifies officer from retirement TA

Retirement TA is allowed for invalidation

Temporary employees with 10+ years are eligible

If settling abroad, TA is allowed only up to port/airport

Q5. Which of the following are true about travel to peruse records in disciplinary cases (for AIS officers)?

TA is allowed only if under suspension

Period of travel may be treated as duty or leave depending on service status

Journey must be pre-approved and certified necessary

A. 2 & 3 only

B. Only 3

C. All of the above

D. 1 & 2 only

✅ Correct Answer: A. 2 & 3 only

📘 Explanation:

TA is allowed whether or not officer is suspended

Travel time is treated as duty or leave, depending on whether officer was on duty or leave

Requires certificate from inquiry officer and approval from head of office

Q6. For an AIS officer retiring from Central Govt service without reverting to state cadre, which TA rules apply?

State Government rules

Central Government rules

No TA admissible unless repatriated

Depends on pay scale

A. Only 2

B. 1 & 4 only

C. Only 3

D. 2 & 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: A. Only 2

📘 Explanation:

Per Govt. decision, AIS officers on Central deputation retiring without returning to state cadre are governed by Central Govt retirement TA rules

Pay scale does not affect the applicability of the rules

Q7. For an officer settling in the same station after retirement, what TA benefits are admissible?

Packing allowance

Mileage for travel to new home if residence changed

Reimbursement for personal effects transport

Lumpsum transfer grant

A. 2 & 3 only

B. 1, 2 & 3 only

C. All of the above

D. Only 3

✅ Correct Answer: A. 2 & 3 only

📘 Explanation:

If officer shifts residence within same city, they get:

✅ Cost of transporting effects

✅ Road mileage for family if residence changed

❌ No packing allowance or lumpsum transfer grant

Q8. Which of the following apply when an AIS officer uses a private car instead of train during retirement journey?

He can claim mileage allowance up to rail fare

If family travels with him, extra mileage is admissible

Private car use disqualifies TA unless permitted by Finance Ministry

A. Only 1

B. 1 & 2 only

C. 2 & 3 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1 & 2 only

📘 Explanation:

TA claims using a private vehicle are admissible up to rail fare limits

Extra mileage allowed depending on how many family members travel

No special Finance Ministry approval is required for personal car use

Q9. Officer Arvind travels partly by train, partly by air on transfer. What applies to his TA claim?

Each leg is reimbursed as per mode used

Entire travel must be calculated using single mode

He can claim composite allowance if journey includes both road and rail

Fare is limited to shortest route only

A. 1 & 3 only

B. Only 1

C. 1, 3 & 4 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: C. 1, 3 & 4 only

📘 Explanation:

TA is split per actual modes used

Composite transfer grant, packing, and luggage cost apply if multi-modal

Journey is reimbursed shortest route basis

Q10. Which of the following conditions apply to retired officers claiming TA for moving personal car?

Car must be owned and used while in service

It must have been certified to be in public interest

Car transport is not reimbursable if retired at own request

Reimbursement is capped to AC-III fare equivalent

A. 1 & 2 only

B. Only 2

C. 2 & 4 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: A. 1 & 2 only

📘 Explanation:

Car must be in use during last posting, and considered in public interest

TA is not denied for voluntary retirement

Reimbursement is actual cost, not AC-III fare equivalent

rest everything is on https://dopt.gov.in/sites/default/files/ccs_leave_rules_0.pdf

2018

2016 - 17

Department wise list -

1. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare :

i. Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

ii. Department of Agricultural Research and Education

2. Ministry of Ayush

No Dept

3. Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers

i. Department of Chemicals and Petro-Chemicals

ii. Department of Fertilizers

iii. Department of Pharmaceuticals

4. Ministry of Civil Aviation

No Department

5. Ministry of Coal:

No Department

6. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

i. Department of Commerce

ii. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade

7. Ministry of Communications:

i. Department of Telecommunications

ii. Department of Posts

8. Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution:

i. Department of Consumer Affairs

ii. Department of Food and Public Distribution

Ministry of Cooperation:

No Department

Ministry of Corporate Affairs

No Department

Ministry of Culture

No department

9. Ministry of Defence

i. Department of Defence

ii. Department of Military Affairs

iii. Department of Defence Production

iv. Department of Defence Research and Development

v. Department of Ex-Servicement Welfare

Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region

No Department

10. Ministry of Earth Sciences

No Department

10A. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

No Department

11. Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change

No Department

12. Ministry of External Affairs

No department

13. Ministry of Finance

i. Department of Economic Affairs

ii. Department of Expenditure

iii. Department of Revenue

iv. Department of Investment and Public Asset Management

v. Department of Financial Services

vi. Department of Public Enterprises

13A. Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying

i. Department of Fisheries

ii. Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying

14. Ministry of Food Processing Industries

No Department

15. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

i. Department of Health and Family Welfare

ii. Department of Health Research

16. Ministry of Heavy Industries

No Department

17. Ministry of Home Affairs

i. Department of Internal Security

ii. Department of States

iii. Department of Official Language

iv. Department of Home

v. Department of Jammu, Kashmir and Ladakh Affairs

vi. Department of Border Management

17A. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

No Department

18. Ministry of Education

i. Department of School Education and Literacy

ii. Department of Higher Education

19. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting

No Department

20. Ministry of Labour and Employment

No Department

21. Ministry of Law and Justice

i. Department of Legal Affairs

ii. Legislative Department

iii. Department of Justice

21A. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

No Department

21AA Ministry of Mines

No Department

21B Ministry of Minority Affairs

No Department

22. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

No Department

22B Ministry of Panchayati Raj

No Department

23. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

No Department

24. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

i. Department of Personnel and Training

ii. Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances

iii. Department of Pensions and Pensioners Welfare

25. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas

No Department

26. Ministry of Planning

No Department

26A. Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways

No Department

Citizen Charter

Origin - the concept of Citizens' Charter enshrines the trust between the service provider and its users. The concept was first articulated and implemented in the United Kingdom by the Conservative Government of John Major in 1991 as a national programme with a simple aim: to continuously improve the quality of public services for the people of the country so that these services respond to the needs and wishes of the users. The programme was re-launched in 1998 by the Labour Government of Tony Blair which rechristened it Services Fast.

The basic objective of the Citizen's Charter is to empower the citizen in relation to public service delivery. Six principles of the Citizens Charter movement as originally framed, were:

i. Quality - improving the quality of service

ii. Choice - Wherever possible

iii. Standards - Specify what to expect and how to act if standards are not met

iv. Value: For the taxpayers money

v. Accountability - Individuals and Organisations

vi. Transparency - Rules / Procedures / Schemes / Grievances

The Indian Scene -

Over the years, in India, significant progress has been made in the field of economic development. This, along with a substantial increase in the literacy rate, (from 51.63% to 65.38% in the last decade) has made Indian citizens increasingly aware of their rights. Citizens have become more articulate and expect the administration not merely to respond to their demands but also to anticipate them.

Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Government of India (DARPG) initiated the task of coordinating, formulating and operationalising Citizen's Charters. Guidelines for formulating the Charters as well as a list of do's and don'ts were communicated to various government departments/ organisations to enable them to bring out focused and effective charters.

The Charters are expected to incorporate the following elements:

i. Vision and Mission statement

ii. Details of business transacted by the Organisation

iii. Details of clients

iv. Details of services provided to each client group

v. Details of grievance redress mechanism and how to access it

vi. Expectations from the clients.

Evaluation of Citizens' Charters

During the Year 2002-03, DARPG engaged a professional agency to develop a standardised model for internal and external evaluation of Citizens' Charters in a more effective, quantifiable and objective manner. This agency also carried out evaluation of implementation of Charters in 5 Central Government Organisations and 15 Departments/ Organisations of States of Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh. This Agency was also required to suggest methods for increasing awareness, both within the organisation and among the users, and to suggest possible methods for orientation of management and the staff in the task of formulating and deploying Charters.

As per the report of evaluation carried out by the Agency, major findings were:

(i) In majority of cases Charters were not formulated through a consultative process

(ii) By and large service providers are not familiar with the philosophy, goals and main features of the Charter

(iii) Adequate publicity to the Charters had not been given in any of the Departments evaluated. In most Departments, the Charters are only in the initial or middle stage of implementation

(iv) No funds have been specifically earmarked for awareness generation of Citizens' Charter or for orientation of staff on various components of the Charter

Q What is a Citizen's Charter?

Ans. Citizen's Charter is a document which represents a systematic effort to focus on the commitment of the Organisation towards its Citizens in respects of Standards of Services, Information, Choice and Consultation, Non-Discrimination and Accessibility, Grievance Redress, Courtsey and Value for Money. This also includes expectations of the Organisation from the Citizen for fulfilling the commitment of the Organisation.

Q Who is a 'Citizen' with reference to Citizen's Charter?

Ans. The term 'Citizen' in the Citizen's Charter implies the clients or customers whose interests and values are addressed by the Citizen's Charter and therefore, includes not only the citizens but also all the stakeholders, i.e. citizens, customers, clients, users, beneficiaries, other Ministries/ Departments/ Organisations, State Governments, UT Administrators etc.

Q Whether Ministries/ Department/ Agencies of the State Governments and UT Administrations are also required to formulate Citizen's Charters?

Ans. Citizen's Charter initiative not only covers the Central Govt Ministries/ Departments/ Organisations but also the Departments/ Agencies of State Governments and UT Administrations. Various Departments/ Agencies of many State Governments and UT Administrations have brought out their Charters. More than 600 Citizen's Charters have so far been issued by Agencies/ Organisation of 24 States/ UTs.

Q Whether Citizen's Charter is legally enforceable?

Ans. No. The Citizen's Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non-justiciable. However, It is a tool for facilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frame etc. with commitments from the Organisation and its clients.

Q What is the role of Dept of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Citizen's Charter Initiative in the Government?

Ans. Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India, in its efforts to provide more responsive and citizen-friendly governance, coordinates the efforts to formulate and operationalise Citizens' Charters in Central Government, State Governments and UT Administrations. It provides guidelines for formulation and implementation of the Charters as well as their evaluation.

Q What are the components of a Citizen's Charter?

Ans. A good Citizen's Charter should have the following components: -

i. Vision and Mission Statement of the Organisation.

ii. Details of Business transacted by the Organisation.

iii. Details of Citizens' or Clients.

iv. Statement of services including standards, quality, time frame etc. provided to each Citizen/ Client group separately and how/ where to get the services.

v. Details of Grievance Redress Mechanism and how to access it.

vi. Expectations from the 'Citizens' or 'Clients'.

vii. Additional commitments such as compensation in the event of failure of service, delivery.

Statutory, Quasi Judicial, Regulatory Bodies

Constitutional Bodies

Constitutional bodies are important bodies in India that derive their powers and authorities from the Indian Constitution.

i. They are specifically mentioned in the Constitution, meaning they have dedicated articles.

ii. Any change in the mechanism of these bodies would require a constitutional amendment.

iii. Important bodies such as the Finance Commission, the UPSC, the Election Commission, the CAG, National Commissions for SCs and STs, etc. are constitutional bodies.

Statutory Bodies in India

These are non-constitutional bodies as they do not find any mention in the Constitution.

i. They are also important bodies due to their function.

ii. They are created by an Act of Parliament.

iii. These are also termed non-constitutional bodies that make rules & regulations and take decisions on behalf of the government.

iv. They are called ‘statutory’ since statutes are laws made by the Parliament or the legislature.

v. Since these bodies derive their power from statutes or laws made by the Parliament, they are known as statutory bodies.

vi. Some examples of statutory bodies are National Commission for Women, National Human Rights Commission, National Green Tribunal, etc.

List of Important Statutory Bodies in India

i. Securities & Exchange Board of India - SEBI Act, 1992

ii. National Human Rights Commission - Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993

iii. National Commission for Women - National Commission for Women Act, 1990

iv. National Commission for Minorities - National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992

v. National Green Tribunal - National Green Tribunal Act 2010

vi. Armed Forces Tribunal - Armed Forces Tribunal Act 2007

vii. Unique Identification Authority of India Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016

viii. Central Vigilance Commission Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003

ix. Commission for Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region (NCR) and Adjoining Areas Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Ordinance, 2020

x. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights - Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005

xi. Competition Commission of India - Competition Act, 2002

xii. National Legal Services Authority - Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987

xiii. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development - National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act, 1981

Regulatory Bodies in India

Regulatory bodies are public or government agencies responsible for exercising autonomous authority over some area of human activity in a regulatory or supervisory capacity.

i. Some regulatory bodies are independent, which means they are independent of any branch of the government.

ii. They are set up to enforce safety and standards.

iii. They have the charge of establishing norms of a particular area of human activity, and also supervising the bodies employed in that activity.

iv. They are established by legislative acts.

v. The main functions of the regulatory body are typically identified as follows:

a. Regulations and guides

b. Review and assessment

c. Licensing

d. Inspection

e. Corrective actions

f. Enforcement

i. RBI - Banking, monetary policy and finance

ii. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) -Insurance

iii. Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority (PFRDA) - Pension

iv. National Housing Bank (NHB) - Housing finance

v. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) - Telecom and tariffs

vi. Central Board of Film Certification - Film certification and censorship

vii. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) - Food safety

viii. Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) - Standards and certification

ix. Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) - Cricket

Executive Bodies: -

These bodies are non-constitutional and non-statutory.

a. They are not mentioned in the Constitution.

b. They are also not established by an act of Parliament.

c. They are formed by executive resolution or action, which means that they are formed by the government’s action only.

d. They can be converted into a statutory body by enacting a law. For example, the UIDAI was made into a statutory body after it was established by enacting a new law.

List of Executive Bodies (Non-Constitutional Body/Executive Body) -

i. Niti Ayog

ii. National Development Council

iii. Central Bureau of Investigation

Judicial Bodies

Judicial bodies are courts in India. Their chief objective is to provide justice by following the laws of the land.

i. Supreme Court of India

ii. High Court of India

Quasi-judicial Bodies

A quasi-judicial body can be an individual or body with powers resembling a court of law.

-They can adjudicate and decide penalties on the guilty.

-They are different from judicial bodies in that their field is limited compared to a court.

-They can be formed on a matter pending in court, by court order if the court considers it necessary; the court reserves the right to appoint members of such a body.

-They can be tribunals for a specific domain, or like an arbitrator.

-Quasi-judicial bodies have adjudicating powers in such matters as:

=Breach of discipline;

=Trust in money matters or otherwise

=Conduct rules

Their authority is limited to specific areas like: Financial markets; Land use and zoning; Public standards; Employment law; Specific set of regulations of an agency

-Decisions of a quasi-judicial body are often legally enforceable under the laws of a jurisdiction.

List of Quasi-Judicial Bodies in India are:

i. National Green Tribunal

ii. Central Information Commission

iii. National Human Rights Commission

iv. Tribunal

v. SEBI

Note: A single body can be a statutory, regulatory, and quasi-judicial body

Difference between Judicial and Quasi-judicial Bodies

i. Judicial decisions are bound by precedent in common law, whereas quasi-judicial decisions are generally not.

ii. Judicial decisions may create new laws, but quasi-judicial decisions are based on existing law.

iii. Quasi-judicial needn’t adhere to strict judicial rules (of procedure and evidence).

iv. Quasi-judicial bodies can hold formal hearings only if they are mandated to do so as per their governing laws.

Q What is the difference between statutory and constitutional bodies?

Ans. Statutory bodies are established by an act of a parliament whereas constitutional bodies are mentioned in the constitution and derive their powers from it.

Q Is CBI a statutory body?

Ans. The CBI is not a statutory body although it derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946, which was passed in British India.

Q When can a quasi-judicial body be formed?

Ans. A Quasi-Judicial body can be formed on a matter pending in court, by court order if the court considers it necessary; the court reserves the right to appoint members of such a body.

Q Which body can be formed by governments action only?

Ans. Executive bodies are are formed by executive resolution or government actions. These are not mentioned in the constitution and are not established by an act of parliament. These bodies can be converted into a statutory body by enacting a law.

Q Is NITI Aayog statutory body?

Ans. NITI Aayog is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body. It is an executive body.

Statutory Bodies

Aeronautical Development Agency, Ministry of Defence

Agharkar Research Institute (ARI)

Agricultural Scientists Recruitment Board (ASRB), New Delhi

Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority

Airports Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA)

Ali Yavar Jung National Institute for the Hearing Handicapped (AYJNIHH)

Ali Yavar Jung National Institute of Speech and Hearing Disabilities (Divyangjan)

Aligarh Muslim University (AMU)

All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA), Ministry of AYUSH

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS)

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Bhopal

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Jodhpur

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Patna

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Raipur

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Rishikesh

All India Institute of Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation, Mumbai

All India Institute of Speech and Hearing (AIISH), Mysore

All India Radio (AIR)

Apex Hi-Tech Institute, Bangalore

Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES)

Assam University

Atomic Energy Central School, Narwapahar, Jharkhand

Atomic Energy Central School-5, Anushaktinagar, Mumbai, Maharashtra

Atomic Energy Education Society (AEES)

Babu Jagjivan Ram National Foundation(BJRNF)

Batteries(Importers) Registration and Management System Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), Delhi

Bhakra Beas Management Board (BBMB)

Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N)

Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC), New Delhi

Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany

Board of Practical Training (BOPT), Easter Region

Brahmaputra Board Guwahati, Assam

Building Materials and Technology Promotion Council (BMTPC)

Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)

Bureau of Immigration (BoI), Ministry of Home Affairs

Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)

CBI Academy, Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh

Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA), New Delhi

Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)

Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS)

Central Council for Research in Yoga & Naturopathy (CCRYN), New Delhi

Central Council of Indian Medicine, New Delhi

Central Detective Training School, Chandigarh

Central Detective Training School, Kolkata

Central Electricity Authority (CEA)

Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC)

Central Farm Machinery Training and Testing Institute, Budni

Central Footwear Training Institute,Chennai

Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL), Bhopal

Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL), Guwahati

Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL), Hyderabad

Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL), Pune

Central Government Employees Welfare Housing Organisation (CGEWHO)

Central Information Commission (CIC)

Central Institute Of Hand Tools, Jalandhar, Punjab

Central Institute of Classical Tamil (CICT)

Central Institute of Educational Technology (CIET)

Central Institute of Horticulture, Nagaland

Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL)

Central Research Institute (CRI), Kasauli, Himachal Pradesh

Central Road Research Institute

Central Silk Board

Central Staff Training and Research Institute (CSTARI), Kolkata

Central Tibetan Schools Administration (CTSA)

Central Institute of Tool Design (CITD)

Central Manufacturing Technology Institute (CMTI)

Central Muga Eri Research and Training Institute (CMER and TI), Lahdoigarh, Jorhat, Assam

Central Power Research Institute (CPRI), Bangalore, Karnataka

Central Pulp and Paper Research Institute (CPPRI), Saharanpur

Central Universities , Ministry of Human Resource Development

Central University of Bihar (CUB)

Central University of Haryana

Central University of Himachal Pradesh

Central University of Karnataka

Central University of Kashmir

Central University of Odisha, Koraput

Central University of Punjab (CUP)

Central University of Rajasthan

Central University of Tamil Nadu

Central Vigilance Commission(CVC)

Central Waqf Council

Central Wool Development Board

Central Zoo Authority (CZA)

Centre for Cultural Resources and Training (CCRT)

Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD)

Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC)

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Centre for Materials for Electronics Technology (C-MET)

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Centre for Womens Development Studies (CWDS)

Chennai Port Trust

Controller General Of Communication Accounts (CGCA)

Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks

Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA)

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Controller of Defence Accounts, Chennai

Council of Architecture

Children's Film Society, India

Coal Mines Provident Fund Organisation (CMPFO)

Cochin Port Trust

Coffee Board, India

Coir Board, , Ministry of Micro Small and Medium Enterprises

Commisssion for Scientific and Technical Terminology (CSTT)

Competent Authority (CA), Chennai

Competition Commission of India

Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC)

Consultancy Development Centre (CDC), DSIR

Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)

Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC)

Deendayal Port Trust, Gandhidham, Kutch, Gujarat

Defence Security Corps

Delhi Public Library

Delhi Urban Art Commission (DUAC)

Dental Council of India

Desert Medicine Research Centre, ICMR, Jodhpur, Rajasthan

Directorate General of Shipping

Distance Education Bureau (DEB) - A Bureau of University Grants Commission (UGC)

Footwear Design and Development Institute (FDDI)

Fragrance and Flavour Development Centre (FFDC), Uttar Pradesh

Gandhi Smriti and Darshan Samiti (GSDS)

Geographical Indications Registry (GIR)

Himalayan Forest Research Institute

Dr B R Ambedkar National Institute of Technology, Jalandhar

Dr. Ambedkar International Centre

Education and Research Network (ERNET)

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Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO)

Employees State Insurance Corporation (ESI) - Post Graduate Institute of Medical Science and Research, Andheri

Employees State Insurance Corporation (ESIC)

Export Inspection Council (EIC)

Film and Television Institute of India (FTII)

Fluid Control Research Institute (FCRI), Palakkad

Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)

Homoeopathic Pharmacopoeia Laboratory (HPL), Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh

ICAR - Agricultural Technology Application Research Institute (ATARI), Hyderabad

ICAR-Directorate of Weed Research (DWR) Jabalpur

Income-tax Settlement Commission / Wealth-tax Settlement Commission

India Brand Equity Foundation (IBEF), Haryana

Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (IACS), Kolkata

Indian Coast Guard

Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In)

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Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)

Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun

India Government Mint, Kolkata

India Government Mint, Noida

India International Convention and Expo Centre (IICC), Dwarka, New Delhi

India Power map

Indian Academy of Sciences, Bangalore, Karnataka

Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR), New Delhi

Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

Indian Council of Philosophical Research, ICPR, New Delhi

Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR)

Indian Diamond Institute

Indian Institute of Advanced Study (IIAS)

Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA)

Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs

Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA)

Indian Institute of Entrepreneurship

Indian Institute of Information Technology (IIIT), Una, Himachal Pradesh

Indian Institute of Information Technology and Management (IIITM), Gwalior

Indian Institute of Information Technology, Allahabad (IIITA)

Indian Institute of Information Technology, Design and Manufacturing (IIITD & M), Kancheepuram, Tamilnadu

Indian Institute of Information Technology, Design and Manufacturing (IIITDM) Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh

Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad (IIMA)

Indian Institute of Management, Bangalore (IIMB)

Indian Institute of Management, Calcutta (IIMC)

Indian Institute of Management, Indore (IIMI)

Indian Institute of Management, Kozhikode (IIMK)

Indian Institute of Food Processing Technology (IIFPT), Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu

Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT)

Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM)

Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM), Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh

Indian Institute of Geomagnetism

Indian Institute of Information Tehnology(IIITs)

Indian Institute of Legal Metrology

Indian Institute of Management (IIM)

Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Sirmaur, Himachal Pradesh

Indian Institute of Management Tiruchirappalli (IIM Tiruchirappalli)

Indian Institute of Management, Lucknow (IIML)

Indian Institute of Management, Raipur(IIMR)

Indian Institute of Management, Rohtak(IIMR)

Indian Institute of Mass Communication (IIMC)

Indian Institute of Millets Research (IIMR)

Indian Institute of Packaging

Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA)

Indian Institute of Science (IISC), Bangalore

Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Bhopal

Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Kolkata

Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Bombay (IITB)

Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Kharagpur

Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Madras

Indian Institute of Technology (IITK), Kanpur

Indian Institute of Technology (IITRPR), Ropar, Rupnagar

Indian Institute of Technology (Indian School of Mines), IIT (ISM), Dhanbad, Jharkhand

Indian Institute of Technology Gandhinagar (IITGn), Gujarat

Indian Institute of Technology Indore (IITI), Madhya Pradesh

Indian Institute of Technology Jodhpur (IITJ), Rajasthan

Indian Institute of Technology Patna (IITP), Bihar

Indian Institute of Technology Roorkee

Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi (IITD)

Indian Institute of Technology, Guwahati (IITG)

Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad

Indian Institute of Technology, Mandi (IIT - Mandi), Himachal Pradesh

Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Mohali

Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISERs)

Indian Institute of Science Education and Research Thiruvananthapuram (IISER-TVM)

Indian Institute of Technology (IIT)

Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Bhubaneswar

Indian Institute of Tourism & Travel Management(IITTM), Noida

Indian Institute of Tourism and Travel Management (IITTM)

Indian Institute of Tourism and Travel management (IITTM), Bhubaneswar

Indian Institute of Tourism and Travel management (IITTM), Nellore

Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM)

Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS)

Indian National Science Academy (INSA)

Indian Naval Academy

Indian Nursing Council

Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC)

Indian Plywood Industries Research and Training Institute (IPIRTI)

Indian Railway Institute of Signal Engineering and Telecommunications, Secunderabad

Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering (IRICEN)

Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering (IRIEEN)

Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering (IRIMEE), Jamalpur

Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)

Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Manav Sangrahalaya

Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Uran Academy (IGRUA)

Indo Tibetan Border Police Force Academy, Mussoorie, Uttarakhand

Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI)

Institute For Design Of Electrical Measuring Instruments, Mumbai

Institute for Plasma Research (IPR)

Institute for Social and Economic Change (ISEC)

Institute for Stem Cell Biology and Regenerative Medicine (inStem)

Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology (IASST)

Indian Railways Institute of Transport Management (IRITM), Lucknow

Indian Rubber Manufactures Research Association (IRMRA), Thane

Indian Science Congress Association, Kolkata

Indian Sign Language Research and Training Centre (ISLRTC)

Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA)

Institute of Bioresources and Sustainable Development (IBSD)

Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI)

Institute of Company Secretaries of India (ICSI)

Institute of Hotel Management (IHM), Gwalior

Institute of Hotel Management (IHM), Hajipur, Patna, Bihar

Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB)

Inter University Accelerator Centre (IUAC) New Delhi

Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA)

International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS)

Investor Education And Protection Fund Authority

Institute of Hotel Management (IHM), Pusa, New Delhi

Institute of Life Sciences (BBSR)

Institute of Mathematical Sciences (IMSc), Chennai, Tamil nadu

Institute of Physics (IOP), Bhubaneswar, Odisha

Institute of Secretariat Training and Management (ISTM)

Jamia Millia Islamia

Jan-Dhan Se Jan Suraksha Portal

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya (JNV), Gadhi, Beed, Maharashtra

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya (JNV), Mahe, Puducherry

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Dodballapur,Bangalore rural

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya, Arwal, Bihar

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya, Gadag, Karnataka

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya, Washim, Maharashtra

Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research (JIPMER)

Jawaharlal Nehru Aluminium Research Development and Design Centre (JNARDDC)

Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research (JNCASR)

Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust

Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU)

Joint Plant Committee (JPC)

Kalakshetra Foundation, Chennai

Kendriya Vidyalaya sector-22, Rohini At D-16, sector-3, Rohini, Delhi

Kendriya Vidyalaya, Sec - 3, Rohini, Delhi

Khadi and Village Indutries Commission (KVIC)

Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Public Library

Kolkata Port Trust

Kandla Customs, Ministry of Finance, Dept. of Revenue

Kendriya Vidyalaya No.2, Kalapet, Puducherry

Kendriya Vidyalaya No.2, Kota, Rajasthan

Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS)

Kendriya Vidyalaya Sector - 25, Rohini, Delhi

Labour Bureau Comsumer Price Index

Lady Hardinge Medical College, New Delhi

Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education (LNIPE), Gwalior

Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (LBSNAA)

Lalit Kala Akademi, National Academy of Fine Art, New Delhi

Madras Institute of Development Studies (MIDS)

Maharsi Sandipani Rashtriya Veda Vidya Pratishtan, Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh

Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya

Mahatma Gandhi Institute for Rural Industrialization (MGIRI)

Malaviya National Institute of Technology, Jaipur (MNIT)

Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA)

Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Institute of Asian Studies (MAKAIAS)

Maulana Azad National Institute of Technology, Bhopal

Medical Council of India (MCI)

Military Engineering Service (MES)

Morarji Desai National Institute of Yoga (MDNIY)

Motilal Nehru National Institute of Technology (MNNIT), Allahabad

Mumbai Port Trust

NCC Alumni Association

Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB)

Narmada Control Authority (NCA)

National AIDS Research Institute (NARI), Pune

National Academy of Customs, Indirect Taxes & Narcotics (NACIN), Faridabad

National Academy of Indian Railways, Vadodara, Gujarat

National Academy of Sciences

National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies (NABCB)

National Accreditation Board for Education and Training (NABET)

National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories (NABL)

National Achievement Survey (NAS)

National Achievement Survey 2021

National Agri-Food Biotechnology Institute (NABI), Mohali, Punjab

National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA)

National Assessment and Accrediation Council

National Atlas & Thematic Mapping Organisation

National Atmospheric Research Laboratory (NARL)

National Brain Research Centre (NBRC)

National Capital Region Planning Board (NCRPB)

National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR)

National Centre for Cell Sciences (NCCS)

National Centre for Cold-chain Development (NCCD)

National Awards Portal

National Bal Bhavan

National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)

National Board for Quality Promotion (NBQP)

National Book Trust (NBT), India

National Centre for Compositional Characterisation of Materials, Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)

National Centre for Earth Science Studies (NCESS)

National Centre for Integrated Pest Management (NCIPM)

National Centre of Geo-Informatics

National Civil Defence College, Nagpur

National Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) Authority

National Commission for Backward Classes(NCBC)

National Commission for Minorities(NCM)

National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)

National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK)

National Commission for Scheduled Castes(NCSC)

National Commission for Women (NCW)

National Cooperative Housing Federation of India (NCHFI)

National Council for Cement and Building Materials (NCCBM)

National Council for Hotel Management and Catering Technology (NCHMCT)

National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language (NCPUL)

National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)

National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), Western Regional Committee, Bhopal

National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)

National Council of Rural Institutes, Hyderabad

National Council of Science Museums (NCSM)

National Culture Fund (NCF)

National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal, Haryana

National Digital Education Architecture

National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)

National Dope Testing Laboratory (NDTL)

National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA)

National Fire Service College

National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH)

National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA), New Delhi

National Handicrafts and Handlooms Museum (Crafts Museum)

National Health Systems Resource Centre (NHSRC)

National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)

National Industrial Corridor Development Corporation (NICDC) Limited, New Delhi

National Institute for Empowerment of Persons with Multiple Disabilities (NIEPMD)

National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management (MANAGE)

National Institute of Agricultural Marketing (NIAM)

National Institute of Animal Biotechnology (NIAB), Hyderabad, Andhra Pradesh

National Institute of Ayurveda

National Institute of Communication Finance (NICF)

National Institute for Entrepreneurship and Small Business Development (NIESBUD)

National Institute for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

National Institute for Research in Reproductive Health (NIRRH), Maharashtra

National Institute for the Empowerment of Persons with Intellectual Disabilities

National Institute for the Orthopaedically Handicapped (NIOH), Kolkata

National Institute of Design (NID)

National Institute of Design, Andhra Pradesh

National Institute of Design, Assam

National Institute of Design, Haryana

National Institute of Design, Madhya Pradesh

National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM)

National Institute of Electronics and Information Technology - NIELIT

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National Institute of Epidemiology (NIE)

National Institute of Fashion Technology (NIFT), Head Office, New Delhi

National Institute of Financial Management (NIFM)

National Institute of Immunology (NII)

National Institute of Medical Statistics Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), New Delhi

National Institute of Naturopathy (NIN)

National Institute of Occupational Health (NIOH), ICMR, Ahmedabad

National Institute of Ocean Technology

National Institute of Fisheries Post Harvest Technology and Training (NIFPHATT), Kochi, Kerala

National Institute of Health and Family Welfare (NIHFW), New Delhi

National Institute of High Security Animal Diseases (NIHSAD), ICAR

National Institute of Hydrology (NIH), Roorkee

National Institute of Immunology

National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS)

National Institute of Plant Genome Research, New Delhi

National Institute of Plant Health Management (NIPHM)

National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child Development (NIPCCD)

National Institute of Rehabilitation Training and Research (NIRTAR)

National Institute of Technical Teachers Training and Research (NITTTRs)

National Institute of Technical Teachers Training and Research, Chennai

National Institute of Technical Teachers Training and Research, Kolkata

National Institute of Technology (NIT)

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Agartala

National Institute of Rock Mechanics (NIRM)

National Institute of Rural Development (NIRD)

National Institute of Secondary Steel Technology (NISST)

National Institute of Social Defence (NISD)

National Institute of Solar Energy, Ministry of New and Renewable

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Arunachal Pradesh

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Delhi

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Goa

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Manipur

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Meghalaya

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Mizoram

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Nagaland

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Puducherry

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Sikkim

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Uttarakhand

National Institute of Technology(NIT), Raipur

National Institute of Technology, Calicut

National Institute of Technology, Durgapur

National Institute of Technology, Hamirpur

National Institute of Technology, Jamshedpur

National Institute of Technology, Karnataka Suratkal

National Institute of Technology, Kurukshetra

National Institute of Technology, Patna

National Institute of Technology, Rourkela

National Institute of Technology, Tiruchirappalli

National Institute of Technology, Warangal

National Institute of Tuberculosis and Respiratory Diseases

National Institute of Unani Medicine (NIUM), Bangalore, Karnataka

National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA)

National Institute of Virology (NIV), Pune, Maharashtra

National Institute of Watersports (NIWS)

National Institute of Wind Energy (NIWE), Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

National Instructional Media Institute (NIMI)

National Judicial Academy India

National Jute Board

National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)

National Mission on Education through Information and Communication Technology (NMEICT)

National Monuments Authority (NMA)

National Museum Institute (NMI)

National Pension System (NPS) Trust

National Single Window System for Business Approvals

National Skill Development Agency (NSDA)

National Skill Trainers Institute (NSTI) for Women, Dakopgre Tura, West Garo Hills, Meghalaya (formerly Regional Vocational Training Institute (RVTI) for Women)

National Skill Trainers Institute (NSTI) for Women, Mumbai, Maharashtra (formerly Regional Vocational Training Institute (RVTI) for Women)

National Skill Trainers Institute (NSTI) for Women, Shimla, Himachal Pradesh (formerly Regional Vocational Training Institute (RVTI) for Women)

National Small Industries Corporation Limited (NSIC)

National Sports University, Imphal, Manipur

National Testing Agency (NTA)

National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), New Delhi

National Trust for the Welfare of Persons with Autism, Cerebral Palsy, Mental Retardation and Multiple Disabilities, New Delhi

National Power Training Institute (NPTI), Faridabad, Haryana

National Productivity Council (NPC)

National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA)

National School of Drama

National Science Centre, Delhi

National Tuberculosis Institute (NTI), Bangalore

Nava Nalanda Mahavihara, Nalanda, Bihar

Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS)

Nehru Memorial Museum & Library (NMML), New Delhi

Nehru Science Centre, Mumbai

Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan (NYKS), Delhi

New Mangalore Port Trust, Panambur, Mangalore, Karnataka

North Central Zone Cultural Centre (NCZCC)

North Eastern Hill University (NEHU), Shillong, Meghalaya

North Eastern Indira Gandhi Regional Institute of Health and Medical Sciences (NEIGRIHMS)

North Eastern Institute of Ayurveda and Homoeopathy (NEIAH), Shillong, Meghalaya

North Eastern Regional Institute of Water and Land Management (NERIWALM)

North Eastern Space Applications Centre

North Zone Cultural Center, Sheesh Mahal, Patiala

Ocean Science and Technology Cell (OSTC)

OxyCare - Management Information System

Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Institute for the Physically Handicapped (PDDUIPH)

Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya National Academy of Social Security (PDNASS)

Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)

Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO)

Pharmacy Council of India

Pondicherry University

Post Graduate Institute of Medical Education and Research, Chandigarh

Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY)

Prasar Bharati, Broadcasting Corporation of India

Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology (RGCB)

Rajiv Gandhi Indian Institute of Management (RGIIM), Shillong, Meghalaya

Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Intellectual Property Management (RGNIIPM), Nagpur, Maharashtra

Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Youth Development (RGNIYD)

Raman Research Institute, Bangalore, Karnataka

Press Council of India (PCI)

Pune Branch of WIRC, The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI)

Quality Council of India

Railway Recruitment Management System

Raja Rammohun Roy Library Foundation (RRRLF)

Raman Science Centre and Planetarium, Nagpur

Rampur Raza Library

Rashtriya Ayurveda Vidyapeeth (National Academy of Ayurveda), Ministry of AYUSH

Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (RMK)

Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan

Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA) for the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi

Regional Centre for Biotechnology (RCB)

Regional Centre for Urban and Environmental Studies (RCUES), Osmania University, Hyderabad

Regional Inspectorial Organisation, Shillong

Regional Institute of Medical Sciences, Imphal, Manipur

Regional Science Center, Bhopal

Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI)

Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

Rubber Board, India

Saha Institute of Nuclear Physics (SINP), Kolkatta

Sahitya Akademi

Sainik School Bhubaneswar, Odisha

Sainik School Kapurthala, Punjab

Sainik School Rewari, Haryana

Salar Jung Museum, Hyderabad, Andhra Pradesh

Sangeet Natak Akademi

Sant Longowal Institute of Engineering and Technology (SLIET)

Sardar Swaran Singh National Institute of Renewable Energy (SSSNIRE)

Sardar Vallabhbhai National Institute of Technology, Surat

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International School of Textiles & Management, Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy

Satyajit Ray Film and Television Institute

Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB)

Securities Appellate Tribunal, Mumbai

Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology (SCTIMST)

Staff Selection Commission (SSC)

Swami Vivekanand National Institute of Rehabilitation Training and Research (SVNIRTAR), Olatpur, Odisha

Tariff Authority for Major Ports (TAMP)

Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR)

Semi-Conductor Laboratory

Society for Applied Microwave Electronic Engineering and Research (SAMEER)

DETAILS

Software Technology Parks of India (STPI)

DETAILS

Space Physics Laboratory (SPL), Department of Space, Govt. of India

Spices Board, India

Tata Memorial Centre (Hospital) (TMC)

Tea Board of India, Kolkata, West Bengal

Technology Information, Forecasting and Assessment Council (TIFAC)

Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT)

Telecom Equipment and Services Export Promotion Council (TEPC), New Delhi

Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)

Telecommunication Engineering Centre, New Delhi

Textiles Committee

Tezpur University

The Institute of Cost Accountants of India

Town Official Language Implementation Committee

Translational Health Science and Technology Institute (THSTI), Gurgaon, Haryana

Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED)

Tribal Research Institute (TRI), Centres of Excellence (CoE) & Research Projects

Tuberculosis Research Centre, Chennai

The National Innovation Foundation (NIF) – India

The Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology (RGIPT), Rae Bareli, Uttar Pradesh

Thirteenth Finance Commission

Tigernet, a directory of tigers and other wildlife mortality, National Tiger Conservation Authority

Tobacco Board, India

Tuticorin Port Trust

Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)

DETAILS

University Grants Commission (UGC)

University of Delhi

V. V. Giri National Labour Institute (VVGNLI)

Vardhman Mahavir Medical College and Safdarjung Hospital, New Delhi

Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre (VECC)

Veterinary Council of India (VCI)

Victoria Memorial Hall, Kolkata

Vigyan Prasar Science Portal

Writings and Speeches of Babasaheb DR. B.R. Ambedkar

Zonal Cultural Centres (ZCC)

kendriya Vidyalaya No.1, Jipmer Campus, Puducherry

Visakhapatnam Port Trust (VPT)

Visva-Bharati, Santiniketan

Visvesvaraya Industrial and Technological Museum, Bangalore

Visvesvaraya National Institute of Technology (VNIT), Nagpur

Wildlife Institute of India (WII

Non Constitutional Bodies

List of Non-Constitutional Bodies in India which are regulatory in nature

RBI – Reserve Bank of India
SEBI – Securities and Exchange Board of India
IRDAI – Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
PFRDA – Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority
NABARD – National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
SIDBI – Small Industries Development Bank of India
NHB – National Housing Bank
TRAI – Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
CBFC – Central Board of Film Certification
FSDC – Financial Stability and Development Council
FSSAI – Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
BIS – Bureau of Indian Standards
ASCI – Advertising Standards Council of India
BCCI – Board of Control for Cricket in India
AMFI – Association of Mutual Funds in India
EEPC – Engineering Export Promotional Council of India
EICI – Express Industry Council of India
FIEO – Federation of Indian Export Organisation
INSA – Indian National Shipowners’ Association
ICC – Indian Chemical Council
ISSDA – Indian Stainless Steel Development Association
MAIT – Manufacturers’ Association for Information Technology
NASSCOM – National Association of Software and Service Companies
OPPI – Organisation Of Plastic Processors of India
PEPC – Project Exports Promotion Council of India
PNGRB – Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board

List of Non-Constitutional Bodies in India which are quasi-judicial in nature

National Human Rights Commission
National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
Competition Commission of India
Income Tax Appellate Tribunal
National Company Law Tribunal
Appellate Tribunal for Electricity
Railway Claims Tribunal
Intellectual Property Appellate Tribunal
Banking Ombudsman
National Green Tribunal
Central Information Commission
SEBI
RBI

Note: ‘Quasi’ is Latin for “as if.” Quasi-Judicial bodies have a partly judicial character.

They possess the right to hold hearings and conduct investigations into disputed claims and alleged infractions of rules and regulations. They make decisions in a similar manner as courts.

Q What is CPSEs?

Ans. CPSEs are those companies in which Central Govt Share is more than 51%.

Q Chief Accounting Authority of a Ministry / Department?

Ans. Secretary of Each Department is the Chief Accounting Authority.

Official Language

Official Language Rules, 1976

The Official Languages (Use for Official Purpose of the Union)

Rules, 1976

(As amended, 1987, 2007, 2011)

Article 350: Language to be used in representations for redress of grievances

Every person shall be entitled to submit a representation for the redress of any grievance to any officer or authority of the Union or a State in any of the languages used in the Union or in the State, as the case may be.

In exercise of the powers conferred by section 8, read with sub-section (4) of section 3 of the Official Languages Act, 1963 (19 of 163), the Central Government hereby makes the following rules, namely:

1. Short title, extent and commencement -

i. These rules may be called the Official Languages (use for Official Purposes of the Union) rules, 1976.

ii. They shall extend to the whole of India, except the State of Tamil Nadu.

iii. They shall come into force on the date of their publication in the Official Gazette.

2. Definitions - In these rules, unless the context otherwise requires -

a. Act means the Official Languages Act, 1963 (19 of 1963):

b. Central Government Office includes -

i. any Ministry, Department or Office of the Central Government

ii. any Office of a Commission, Committee or Tribunal appointed by the Central Government and

iii. any Office of a corporation or company owned or controled by the Central Governemtn:

c. Employee menas any person employed in a Central Government Office:

d. Notified Office means an office notified under sub-rule(4) of rule 10;

e. Proficiency in Hindi means proficiency in Hindi as described in rule 9;

f. Region A means the States of Bihar, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Uttarakhand, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh and The Union Territories of Delhi and Andaman and Nicobar Islands

g. Region B means the states of Gujarat, Maharashtra and Punjab and the Union Territory of Chandigarh, Daman and Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli;

h. Region C means the States and the Union Territories other than those referred to in clauses (f) and (g);

i. working knowledge of hindi means working knowledge of Hindi as described in rule 10.

3. Communications to States etc. other than to Central Government Offices: -

i. Communcations from a Central Government office to a State or a UT in Region A or to any office (not being a Central Government office) or person in such State or UT shall, save in exceptional cases, be in Hindi, and if any communication is issued to any of them in English it shall be accompained by a Hindi translation thereof.

ii. Communications from a Central Government office: -

a. to a State or UT in Region B or to any Office (not being a Central Government office) in such State or UT shall ordinarily be in Hindi and if any communication is issued to any of them in English, it shall be accompanied by a Hindi translation thereof:

Provided that if any such State or UT desires the communications of any particular class or category or those intended for any of its offices, to be sent for a period specified by the Government of the State or Union Territory concerned, in English, or in Hindi with a translation in the other language, such communication shall be sent in that manner;

b. to any person in a State or UT of Region B may be either in Hindi or English.

iii. Communications from a Central Government office to State or UT in Region C or to any office (not being a Central Government office) or person in such State shall be in English.

iv. Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-rules(1) and (2), communications from a central government office in region C to a state or UT of Region A or Region B or to any office (not being a Central Government office) or person in such State may be either in Hindi or in English.

Provided that communications in Hindi shall be in such proportion as the Central Government may, having regard to the number of persons having working knowledge of Hindi in such offices, the facilties for sending communications in Hindi and matters incidental thereto determine from time to time.

4. Communications between Central Government Offices communications:

a. Between one Ministry / Dept of the Central Government and another may be in Hindi or in English

b. Between one Ministry / Dept of the Central Government and attached or subordinate offices situated in Region A shall be in Hindi and in such proportion as the Central Government may, having regard to the number of persons having a working knowledge of Hindi insuch offices, the facilities for sending communicatios in HIndi and matters incidental thereto, determine from time to time;

c. Between Central Government offices situated in Region A other than those specified in clause (a) or clause (b) shall be in Hindi.

d. Between Central Government offices situated in Region A and offices in Region B or Region C may be in Hindi or in English

Provided that these communications shall be in Hindi in such proportion as the Central Government may having regard to the number of persons having working knowledge of Hindi in such offices, the facilities for sending communications in Hindi and matters incidental thereto, determine from time to time.

e. Between Central Government offices situated in Region B or Region C may be in Hindi or English

Provided that these communications shall be in Hindi in such proportion as the Central Government may, having regard to the number of persons having working knowledge of Hindi in such offices, the facilities for sending communications in Hindi and matters incidental thereto, determine from time to time;

Provided that a translation of such communication in the other language shall: -

i. Where that communication is addressed to an office in Region A or Region B be provided, if necessary, at the receiving end;

ii. where the communication is addressed to an office in Region C be provided along with such communication:

Provided further that no such translation in the other language shall be required to be provided if the communication is addressed to a notified office.

5. Replies to communications received in Hindi: - Notwithstanding anything contained rules 3 and 4, communications from a Central Government office in reply to communications in Hindi shall be in Hindi

6. Use of both Hindi and English: -

Both Hindi and English shall be used for all documents referred to in sub-section (3) of section 3 of the Act and it shall be the responsibility of the persons signing such documents to ensure that such documents are made, executed or issued both in Hindi and in English.

7. Application, representations etc. -

1. An employee may submit an application, appeal or representation in Hindi or in English.
2. Any Application, appeal or representation referred to in sub-rule (1) when made or signed in Hindi, shall be replied to in Hindi.
3. Where an employee desires any order or notice relating to service matters (including disciplinary proceedings) required to be served on him to be in Hindi, or as the case may be, in English, it shall be given to him in that language without undue delay.

8. Noting in Central Government offices-

1. an employee may record a note or minute on a file in Hindi or in English without being himself required to furnish a translation thereof in the other language.
2. No Central Government employee possessing a working knowledge of Hindi may ask for an English translation of any document in Hindi except in the case of documents of legal or technical nature.
3. If any question arises as to whether a particular document is of a legal or technical nature, it shall be decided by the Head of the Department or office.
4. Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-rule (1), the Central Government may, by order specify the notified offices where Hindi alone shall be used for noting, drafting and for such other official purposes as may be specified in the order by employees who possess proficiency in Hindi.

9. Proficiency in Hindi -
An employee shall be deemed to possess proficiency in Hindi if:-

a. he has passed the Matriculation or any equivalent or higher examination with Hindi as the medium of examination ; or

b. he has taken Hindi as an elective subject in the degree examination or any other examination equivalent to or higher than the degree examination; or

c. he declares himself to possess proficiency in Hindi in the form annexed to these rules.

10. Working knowledge of Hindi-

1. An employee shall be deemed to have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi -

If he has passed -

a. the Matriculation or an equivalent or higher examination with Hindi as one of the subjects ; or

b. the Pragya examination conducted under the Hindi Teaching Scheme of the Central Government or when so specified by that Government in respect of any particular category of posts, any lower examination under that Scheme ; or

c. any other examination specified in that behalf by the Central Government; or

i. if he declares himself to have acquired such knowledge in the form annexed to these rules.

ii. The Staff of a Central Government office shall ordinarily be deemed to have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi if eighty per cent of the Staff working therein have acquired such knowledge.

iii. The Central Government or any officer specified in this behalf by the Central Government may determine whether the staff of a Central Government office has acquired a working knowledge of Hindi.

iv. The names of the Central Government offices, the staff whereof have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi, shall be notified in the Official Gazette:

Provided that the Central Government may if it is of opinion that the percentage of the staff working in a notified office and having a working knowledge of Hindi has gone below the percentage specified in sub-rule (2) from any date, it may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare that the said office shall cease to be a notified office from that date.

11. Manuals, Codes, other procedural literature, articles of Stationery, etc.-

a. All manuals, codes and other procedural literature relating to Central Government offices shall be printed or cyclostyled, as the case may be, and published both in Hindi and English in diglot form.

b. The forms and headings of registers used in any Central Government office shall be in Hindi and in English.

c. All name-plates, sign-boards, letter-heads and inscriptions on envelopes and other items of stationery written, printed or inscribed for use in any Central Government office, shall be in Hindi and in English:

Provided that the Central Government may, if it is considered necessary to do by general or special order exempt any Central Government office from all or any of the provisions of this rule.

12. Responsibility for compliance-

a. It shall be the responsibility of the administrative head of each Central Government office-

- 1. to ensure that the provisions of the Act and these rules and directions issued under Rule (2) are properly complied with ; and
  2. to devise suitable and effective check-point for this purpose.

b. The Central Government may from time to time issue such directions to its employees and offices as may be necessary for the due compliance of the provisions of the Act and these rules.

Section 10 in the Official Languages (use for Official Purposes of the Union) Rules, 1976

1. An employee shall be deemed to have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi

(a) if he has passed:

(i) The Matriculation or an equivalent or higher examination with Hindi as one of the subjects or

(ii) the Pragya examination conducted under the Hindi Teaching Scheme of the Central Government or when so specified by that Government in respect of any particular category of posts, any lower examination under that scheme or

(iii) any other examination specified on that behalf by the Central Government

(b) if he declares himself to have acquired such knowledge in the form annexed to these rules.

(2) The staff of a central govenrment office shall ordinarily be deemed to have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi if 80 % of the Staff working therein have acquired such knowledge.

(3) The Central Government or any officer specified in this behalf by the Central Government may determine whether the sraff of a Central Government office has acquired a working knowledge of Hindi.

(4) The names of the Central Government offices, the staff whereof have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi, shall be notified in the Official Gazetter: Provided that the Central Government may if it is of opinion that the percentage of the staff working in a notified office and having working knowledge of Hindi has gone below the percentage specified in sub-rule (2) from any date, it may, by notification in the Official Gazette declare that the said office shall cease to be notified office from that date.

FOREWARD

The Official Language Resolution dated 18th January, 1968 as adopted by both the Houses

of Parliament states:

“This House resolves that a more intensive and comprehensive programme shall be

prepared and implemented by the Government of India for accelerating the spread and

development of Hindi and its progressive use for various official purposes of the Union and

an Annual Assessment Report giving details of the measures taken and the progress

achieved shall be laid on the Table of both Houses of Parliament and sent to all State

Governments.”

It is in consonance with the provisions of the said Resolution that an Annual

Programme for the promotion and progressive use of the Official Language Hindi is

prepared by Department of Official Language every year for implementation by the Central

Government Offices. The Annual Programme for the year 2021-22 is being issued in the

same context. The demarcation of States/Union Territories of the country into three

Regions has been done on the basis of the extent to which Hindi is spoken and written in

the given Region. The details of three Regions viz. A, B and C as follows:

Region A - States of Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand and National Capital Territory of Delhi and Andaman & Nicobar Islands Union Territory.

Region B - States of Gujarat, Maharashtra and Punjab and Union Territories of Chandigarh, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli.

Region - C: All other States or Union Territories not included in the „A‟ and „B‟ Regions

The use of Hindi in the Government Offices has increased but substantial business is still being done in English. The objective of Official Language policy is that normally Hindi be used in all Government business to the maximum extent possible. This will be in keeping with the spirit of the Constitution. Needless to say that doing official work in the people's language will speed-up development and bring transparency in administration.

In the present era, no language can survive without being associated with Information and Communication Technology (ICT).It is evident that due to availability of Information Technology facilities including computers, e-mail and websites in the Central Government Offices it has become easier to maximize the usage of Hindi in Scientific and Technical subjects.

The following points in the Annual Programme need to be paid utmost attention:-

1. It is necessary that Presidential Orders issued on all the nine volumes of the Report of the Committee of Parliament on Official Language be complied with by the Central Government Offices.

2. Necessary steps should be taken to get Scientific and Technical literature prepared in Hindi by the concerned Departments and made available for the use of public.

3. Hindi language / Hindi Typing/ Stenography training may be expedited and all concerned should be trained.

4. Central Government Offices should regularly nominate their employees to the different training programmes of the Department of Official Language and direct them to be present in the classes regularly and to complete training with sincerity and write the examination. Any instance of discontinuing training or not writing the examination should be severely dealt with.

5. Central Hindi Training Institute imparts 6 weeks (30 working days) training programme to the Officers of Central Secretariat Official Language Service at the time of promotion.

6. Central Government Offices should at their training institutes for Central Services make arrangements for training in Rajbhasha Hindi at par with the level of arrangements at Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration, Mussoorie. They should prepare literature on their subjects in Hindi so that after training the officers/employees may be able to carry out their work in Hindi easily. In all the training programmes of the Central Govt., targets for imparting training through Hindi medium compulsorily, have been fixed for the region A,B,C in this Annual Programme. Necessary guidelines are required to be issued to the respective training centers for compliance in this regard.

7. All the Officials should be acquainted with the Official Language Policy by conducting workshops so that they may discharge their responsibilities effectively.

8. Central Government Offices should organize seminars relating to their subjects in Hindi medium.

9. Periodic Official Language Inspections of the Central Government Offices should be conducted by concerned officers and the Senior Officers (DS/Dir./JS) of Department of Official Language.

10. A Joint Town Official Language Implementation Committees (TOLIC) Website has been created by the Department of Official Language for TOLICs working all over the country (http//narakas.rajbhasha.gov.in). This website is totally free of cost. All the TOLICs can share data (information) related to their TOLICs on this website. The objective of formation of TOLICs is to provide a joint forum for encouraging the use of Official Language in the Central Government Offices across the country and for removing the difficulties being faced in the implementation of the Official Language Policy. In this forum, the members of TOLIC can improve the level of their achievements through deliberations and exchange the information about the best practices adopted by them for increasing the use of Hindi. In a year, two meetings of the committee are to be organized. The Administrative Heads of the Central Government Offices located in the particular town are required to personally attend the meetings of the committee. Under Rule 12 of the Official Languages Rules, 1976, Administrative Head has been entrusted with the responsibility for the implementation of the Official Language Policy of the Union and compliance of the orders issued by Department of Official Language in this regard from time-to-time. Officers of the Department of the Official Language (Hqrs)/ Regional Implementation Offices attend these meetings. The TOLIC which performs the best in increasing the use of Official Language as per the norms fixed by the Department of the Official Language is awarded with “Rajbhasha Kirti Puraskar” at National level and “Rajbhasha Puraskar” at Regional level. In order to conduct the proceedings properly, checklist of the relevant points to be considered in the meetings of the TOLIC is provided at the time of formation of the TOLIC.

11. The Quarterly Progress Report should be sent to the Department of Official Language online within 30 days from the completion of the quarter. Similarly, Annual Assessment Report should also be made available by 30th June. All Central Government Offices are required to send Quarterly Progress Report and Annual Assessment Report online only. The system is available at the Department‟s website www.rajbhasha.gov.in.

12. Ministries/Departments have to ensure constitution/re-constitution of Hindi Advisory Committees at the earliest and ensure holding of their meetings regularly. In these meetings, the checklist of important points provided by the Department of Official Language for the consideration of the members should be kept in view. This checklist is available on the website of the Department of Official Language at www.rajbhasha.gov.in. Decisions taken in the meetings must be implemented.

13. The Policy of the Govt. with regard to the propagation and spread of the Official Language is that the use of Hindi as Official Language may be increased with motivation, encouragement and goodwill. At the same time, the Rules and Orders should be strictly complied with. In this context it may be mentioned here that under Rule 12 of the Official Language Rules, 1976 it is the responsibility of the Administrative Head of each Central Govt. office to ensure that the directions issued under the O.L. Act and O.L. Rules are adequately complied with. If an officer or Employee knowingly (deliberately) contravenes the provisions regarding the Official Language, action may be taken on the basis of the contravention of the rules and orders relating to the case.

14. The advertisements published by the Central Government Offices in English/Regional Languages shall mandatorily be published in Hindi also. In the Hindi newspapers, advertisement should be given in Hindi only and in English newspapers these should be only in English. When advertisements are given in English newspapers, then at the end of the advertisement, it should be invariably mentioned that the Hindi version of the Notification/Advertisement/Vacancy related circular is available on the website with complete link.

15. Central Government Offices should ensure that all the computers have Unicode installed on them so that official work in Hindi is done on them easily and smoothly.

16. Under the able guidance and inspirational leadership of Hon’ble Prime Minister – Shri Narendra Modiji and Hon’ble Home Minister – Shri Amit Shahji, Department of Official Language (DoL), Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), has transformed Covid challenge into an opportunity taking the following initiatives: (i) Inspired by our Official Language Policy and Mnemonics used byHon‟ble Prime Minister, a "12 प्र" framework and strategy has been crafted whose pillars are:

-प्रेरणा (Inspiration and Motivation) -

-प्रोत्साहन (Encouragement)

- प्रेम (Love and affection)

- प्राइज़अर्थातपुरस्कथर (Rewards)

- प्रशिक्षण (Training)

- प्रयोग (Usage)

- प्रचार (Advocacy)

- प्रसार (Transmission)

- प्रबंधन(Administration and Management)

- प्रमोिन (पदोन्नतत) (Promotion)

- प्रशिबद्धिा (Commitment)

- प्रयास(Efforts)

The above framework is used by Officers of DoL while participating in various Rajbhasha meetings and workshops organized in different Ministries / Departments / Central Public Sector Undertakings / National Banks and Town Official Language Implementation Committee(TOLIC) meetings.

(ii) The two Training Institutes of DoL – Central Hindi Training Institute (CHTI) and Central Translation Bureau (CTB) have started to impart lessons in Hindi language / Hindi typing / Hindi stenography / Hindi translation through electronic platforms (etraining).

(iii) Regional Implementation Offices (RIOs) of DoL have started virtual inspections through digital platforms (e-inspection).

(iv) Hindi workshops and Town Official Language Implementation Committee (TOLIC) meetings are being held through Information and Communication Technology (ICT)tools (e-meetings).

(v) Launched the e-Patrika Pustakalaya Platform at www.rajbhasha.gov.in, the official website of DoL to facilitate seamless and hassle free reading of In-house magazines of various Central Government Organizations.

(vi) Inspired by Hon'ble Prime Minister's clarion call of Self Reliant India - ‘Be Vocal for Local’, DoL is leaving no stone unturned to make the indigenous memory based computer application (made in technical collaboration with CDAC, Pune; (MeitY) ) - 'Kantasth' more popular and broad based in various Government Organizations. Efforts are also being made to bring in more uniformity and excellence in this application through healthy competition and giving away prizes.

(vii) Efforts are also being made to improve upon 'Lila Rajbhasha' and 'Lila Pravah' in collaboration with Central Hindi Institute (CHI) of Ministry of Education and C-DAC, Pune.

(viii) Expanding the number of TOLICs in India and abroad with plan to set up TOLIC in Port Louis (Mauritius); Durban (South Africa); Port of Spain (Trinidad and Tobago); Dubai (United Arab Emirates); and London (United Kingdom).

The Department of Official Language seeks whole-hearted voluntary support of all Ministries/Departments, Offices, Public Sector Banks and Undertakings etc. in providing greater impetus to Hindi in their day to day work, consistent with the Constitutional and statutory obligations casted upon each one of us and the targets indicated in this Annual Programme for the year 2021-22.

IMPORTANT DIRECTIONS REGARDING OFFICIAL LANGUAGE POLICY

1. Under Section 3(3) of the Official Language Act, 1963, Resolutions, General Orders, Rules, Notifications, Administrative or Other Reports, Press Communiqués, Administrative and Other Reports and Official Papers to be laid before a House or Houses of Parliament, Contracts, Agreements, Licenses, Permits, Tender Notices and Forms of Tender should invariably be issued bilingually (Hindi-English). Under Rule 6 of the Official Language Rules, 1976, it shall be the responsibility of the persons signing such documents to ensure that such documents are made, executed or issued both in Hindi and in English.

2. As per Rule 5 of Official Language Rules, 1976, communications received in Hindi are to be replied in Hindi only by the Central Government Offices.

3. Under Rule 10(4) of Official Language Rules, 1976, the Central Government Offices are required to notify the names of the offices in the Official Gazette, wherein 80% of the staff have acquired working knowledge of Hindi.

4. Rule 8 (4) of the Official Language Rules, 1976, requires the Central Government Offices to issue orders for the employees of the notified offices who have proficiency in Hindi to work only in Hindi for noting, drafting and for such other official purposes as specified in the order.

5. As per Rule 11 of the Official Language Rules, 1976, all manuals, codes and Non Statutory procedural literature, the forms and headings of registers, name plates, sign boards, letter heads and inscriptions on envelopes and other items of stationary shall also be in Hindi and English (in diglot format). Accordingly, the Central Government Offices are required to send all manuals, codes and other procedural literature relating to Non-Statutory procedural literature to Central Translation Bureau for translation.

6. Rule 12 of the Official Language Rules, 1976, requires the Administrative Head of each Central Government Office to ensure that the provisions of the Official Language Act, Official Language Rules and directions issued there under are properly complied with and to devise suitable and effective check points for this purpose.

7. The answers of question papers, except that of the compulsory paper of English, should also be allowed to be written in Hindi in recruitment examinations of subordinate services and such question papers should be made available both in Hindi and English. In interview or oral test, the candidates may be allowed the option to answer in Hindi.

8. The candidates should have the option to answer the question papers of all in-service, departmental and promotion examinations (including All India Level Examinations) conducted by the Central Government Offices, in Hindi. The question papers should compulsorily be set in both the languages, Hindi and English. In interviews, the candidates may be allowed to answer the questions in Hindi.

9. Scientists etc. should be motivated and encouraged to read their research papers in the Official Language Hindi in all the scientific/technical seminars and discussions etc. Research papers should relate to the main subjects of the Ministry/ Department and Office concerned.

10. Every type of training, whether of long-term or of short term, generally be imparted through Hindi medium in „A‟ and „B‟ Regions. To impart training in „C‟ Region, the training material be prepared both in Hindi and English and made available to the trainees in Hindi or English as per their requirements.

11. So long as the prescribed targets regarding Hindi typists and Hindi stenographers are not achieved in the Central Govt. offices, only Hindi typists and Hindi stenographers should be recruited.

12. International Treaties and Agreements should invariably be prepared both in Hindi as well as in English. There should be authentic translation of Treaties and Agreements entered into in other countries and they should be kept on file for record.

13. The following items of work should be done in Hindi in the branches of the banks notified under Rule 10 (4) of the Official Language Rules, 1976:- Applications filled by customers in Hindi and Demand Drafts issued on applications filled in English with the consent of the customer, Payment Order, Credit Card, Debit Card, all kinds of lists, returns, fixed deposit receipts, communications etc. regarding cheque-book, entries in daily Ledger, Muster Roll, Dispatch Book, Pass Book, entries in Log Book, work relating to priority areas, security and customer services, opening of new accounts, writing addresses on envelopes, work relating to travelling allowance, leave, provident fund, house building advance, documents related to medical facilities for the employees, agenda and minutes of the meetings.

14. In non-Hindi speaking States, respective Regional Language, Hindi and English should be used in this order for boards, sign boards, name plates and directional indicators.

15. Officers/ employees associated with translation work and implementation of Official Language Policy may be nominated for compulsory Translation Training in the Central Translation Bureau. Officers/ employees having knowledge of Hindi and English both at degree level whose services are likely to be utilized for translation work by the office may also be nominated for translation training.

16. Translators should be helped out with aids like standard dictionaries (English-Hindi, Hindi-English) and other technical literature and glossaries.

17. The officers of IAS and other All India Services are imparted compulsory training in Hindi during their training in Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration, Mussoorie so that they could make use of it in official work. However, most of the officers do not use Hindi in their official work after joining the service. As such, officials/employees working under them do not get the right message. Consequently, Hindi is not used in official work to the extent required. It is the Constitutional obligation on senior officers of the Central Government Offices to make progressive use of Hindi in their official work. This in turn will motivate the officials/employees working under them, thereby giving impetus to the compliance of the Official Language Policy.

18. All the Central Government Offices should at their training institutes for Central Services, make arrangements for training in Rajbhasha Hindi, at par with the level of arrangements at Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration, Mussoorie and prepare literature on their subjects in Hindi so that after training the officers/employees may be able to carry out their work in Official Language Hindi easily. All the training programmes should be prepared in audio-visual form through the use of multimedia projectors, laptops etc.

19. All the Central Government Offices should widely promote and propagate the various incentive schemes in their Offices in order to accelerate the use of Hindi, so that maximum numbers of officials/employees are benefited by these schemes and Hindi is increasingly used in official work.

20. To overcome the difficulties faced by various offices in doing the official work in Hindi, new guidelines have come into effect forthwith to organize Hindi workshops. According to new guidelines, the duration of workshop should be- minimum one working day. Minimum two third of the time of workshop shall be devoted to the actual practice of doing the official work in Hindi on the subjects related to that office.

21. The officers/employees handling Hindi work including training and workshops should also be provided good and sufficient space and other necessary facilities to sit in the office to facilitate them to discharge their duties properly.

22. All the Central Government Offices should encourage writing of original books in Hindi on subjects concerned and take necessary steps to enrich their Departmental Glossaries.

23. Emphasis should be given on the use of popular words in our routine work so that citizens have an access to Government Policies/Programmes in simple Hindi language.

24. Hindi magazines are being published by the Central Government Offices to generate working environment in Hindi. General activities and original articles pertaining to the particular office should be published in these magazines. Main provisions of Official Language Policy may also be mentioned in these magazines. The Central Government Offices are required to bring out e-version of these magazines and to upload them on the ‘e-PatrikaPustakalaya’ platform provided by the Department of Official Language at their website: www.rajbhasha.gov.into facilitate smooth and easy access of the In-house magazines to the readers.

25. The Central Government Offices should have the facility of Unicode on computers so that work on computers may be done in Hindi also.

26. It has been noticed that in the website of many Departments, information in Hindi is not being provided or in some cases it is not available completely in Hindi. Website should therefore be developed and updated in Hindi regularly.

27. The Official Language Cadre should be constituted in the Offices / Undertakings / Banks etc. and it should be in conformity with the total posts. The Hindi officers of the subordinate offices of the Ministries / Departments should be given the same pay scale and designation as the Central Secretariat Official Language Service Cadre.

28. The Department of Official Language, every year conducts Basic Computer Training Programmes in Hindi through Central Hindi Training Institute and the duration of each programme is five days. Maximum number of officers/employees may be nominated for these training programmes. Trainees will be able to work in Hindi on computer after completion of the training programme. Details of the programmes may be seen at the website of the Central Hindi Training Institute at www.chti-rajbhasha.gov.in.

29. The Central Government Offices may organize Hindi Seminars.

30. No Non-Governmental Organization has been authorized to impart training of Official Language to the employees of Central Government Offices by the Department of Official Language, Ministry of Home Affairs. Sufficient numbers of training centers across the country are functioning under the Department of Official Language and they impart various types of training to the officers and employees of the Central Government free of cost and they also organize workshops for deliberations on Official Language. As per the directions of Department of Official Language, all the Central Government Offices organize workshops for encouraging the use of Official Language in their respective offices. Besides English, the facility of imparting online training of Hindi language through 14 Indian languages is available on the website of Department of Official Language. Thus, it is not appropriate to incur infructuous expenditure from 10 the Government exchequer for participation in Official Language training and workshops organized by such NGOs.

31. The Department of Official Language bestows the ‘Rajbhasha Gaurav Puraskar’ with an objective to encourage writing books originally in Hindi in various streams of contemporary knowledge/science and to promote use of official language Hindi. 'Rajbhasha Kirti Puraskar' are given by the Department of Official Language to Ministry/ Department, Public Sector Undertakings, Boards/Autonomous Bodies/Trusts etc., Nationalized banks, Town Official Language Implementation Committees and inhouse Hindi Magazines which register significant progress in the use of Official Language. Information about these two award schemes is available at the website of Department of Official of Language www.rajbhasha.gov.in

32. The Department of Official Language, in its website, has provided the links of various institutions through which one can see the glossary of those institutions. If any office has prepared its own glossary, it may be shared with this Department so that others may also take advantage of it.

33. Hindi translation of the generally used English sentences has been provided by the Department of Official Language on its website under the heading 'E-Saral Hindi Vakyakosh' so that officers may write noting in Hindi on files easily by using them.

34. On the demand of Central Government offices, Central Hindi Training Institute imparts training for Hindi language, Hindi typing and Hindi Stenography through video conferencing also. Similar arrangements have also been made by Central Translation Bureau for imparting training to translators.

35. The Department of Official Language has reiterated the suggestions given by the Hon‟ble Prime Minister in the minutes of the 31st meeting of the Central Hindi Committee – bridging the gap between Official Hindi and the Hindi used by the public; taking measures to further enrich Hindi through other languages of the country; assimilating better words in Hindi from other languages; adding ten good words from each of the other Indian languages into Hindi; ensuring simple translation in Hindi in order to make the official language not a hindrance but a help in the propagation of Hindi.

36. Department of Official Language, Ministry of Home Affairs, has recently requested all Secretaries to Government of India / Heads of various Government Organizations that when they chair their senior officers' meeting every month they should also review the progress of Government work in Hindi and discuss about the implementation of various provisions of Official Language Act and Rules in their organization. Also the Joint Secretary (Administration) / Administrative Head in the Organization should be entrusted with the responsibility of implementation of official work in Hindi and chair the Official Language Implementation Committee meeting every quarter of the year.

Paper 1 - 2016 17

✅ Q1. The term "public authority" under the RTI Act, 2005 does not include which one of the following?

Options:

(a) National Human Rights Commission

(b) Lokayukta of Delhi

(d) Trustees of PM CARES Fund

✅ Correct Answer: (d) Trustees of PM CARES Fund

Reasoning:

The RTI Act defines "public authority" as bodies constituted by the Constitution, laws, or government control/funding. Although PM CARES is promoted by the government, it is a registered public charitable trust and has been claimed to be outside the purview of RTI. Courts and the government have taken the stance that it is not a public authority under RTI.

✅ Q2. Who has the right to information under the RTI Act, 2005?

Options:

(a) All individuals in India including the foreigners residing in India

(b) All individuals in India, agencies of the State and the foreigners residing in India

(d) All agencies of the State

✅ Correct Answer: (c) All citizens of India

Reasoning:

Section 3 of the RTI Act says:

"Subject to the provisions of this Act, all citizens shall have the right to information."

It does not extend this right to foreigners or state agencies.

✅ Q3. The obligation of a public authority under the RTI Act, 2005 does not include which of the following?

Options:

(a) Publication of all relevant facts while formulating important policies

(b) Providing reasons for its administrative decisions to affected persons

(d) Providing information regarding commercial confidence to an applicant except in case of larger public interest

✅ Correct Answer: (b) Providing reasons for its administrative decisions to affected persons

Reasoning:

RTI promotes transparency, but the law does not explicitly require authorities to justify every administrative decision to the person affected. Hence, (b) is not a statutory obligation.

✅ Q4. "Right to information" under the RTI Act, 2005 does not include which of the following?

Options:

(a) Inspection of official documents

(b) Obtaining information relating to Border Roads Development Board

(d) Taking certified copy of a decision of the Court

✅ Correct Answer: (d) Taking certified copy of a decision of the Court

Reasoning (Corrected):

Under Section 2(j), the RTI includes taking notes, inspecting files, etc. But certified copies of court decisions are available under court rules, not RTI.

This was clarified by the Supreme Court (e.g., CIC v. High Court of Gujarat case, 2020). So this is not included under RTI, making (d) the correct choice.

✅ Q5. "Competent authority" under the RTI Act, 2005 does not mean which of the following?

Options:

(a) Chief Minister of Delhi

(b) Speaker in case of Legislative Assembly of Delhi

(d) Vice-President of India in case of Council of States

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Chief Minister of Delhi

Reasoning:

As per Section 2(e) of the RTI Act, "competent authority" includes:

President (for Union)

Governor (for State)

Speaker (Legislative Assembly)

Chairman (Legislative Council)

Chief Justice (for judiciary)

Chief Minister is not listed, so (a) is correct.

✅ Q6. "Information" under the RTI Act, 2005 does not include which of the following?

Options:

(a) Records as defined under the Act

(b) Any information relating to a private body which cannot be accessed by a public authority

(d) Data material held in any electronic form

✅ Correct Answer: (b) Any information relating to a private body which cannot be accessed by a public authority

Reasoning:

RTI Act covers information held by or accessible to public authorities.

Private body data not accessible to public authority is outside RTI’s scope. So (b) is correct.

✅ Q7. Which one of the following countries topped the Henley Passport Index in 2021 for the third consecutive year?

Options:

(a) Japan

(b) Singapore

(d) Syria

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Japan

Reasoning:

According to the Henley Passport Index 2021, Japan ranked #1 for the third year in a row, offering visa-free/visa-on-arrival access to the most destinations globally.

Question 8

The 51st edition of International Film Festival of India (IFFI) was held from 16 January to 24 January 2021 in

(a) Mumbai

(b) Goa

(d) Chennai

✅ Answer: (b) Goa

Explanation: The 51st IFFI was held in Goa, maintaining its traditional venue. The event was held from January 16 to 24, 2021, after being postponed due to COVID-19.

Question 9

Khelo India Ice Hockey Tournament was organised in

(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Kashmir

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

✅ Answer: (c) Ladakh

Explanation: The first-ever Khelo India Ice Hockey Tournament was held in Chiktan, Kargil (Ladakh), under the Khelo India initiative.

Question 10

Who has been named winner of the prestigious 2021 Michael and Sheila Held Prize along with two others for solving long-standing questions on the Kadison-Singer problem and on Ramanujan graphs?

(a) Nirupam Srivastava

(b) Anil Srivastava

(d) Nikhil Srivastava

✅ Answer: (d) Nikhil Srivastava

Explanation: Nikhil Srivastava, along with Adam Marcus and Daniel Spielman, won the Michael and Sheila Held Prize in 2021 for work on the Kadison-Singer problem and Ramanujan graphs.

Question 11

World Braille Day is observed globally on

(a) 4th January

(b) 7th February

(d) 7th April

✅ Answer: (a) 4th January

Explanation: World Braille Day is observed on January 4th to commemorate the birth of Louis Braille, the inventor of the Braille system.

Question 12

In India, the National Girl Child Day (NGCD) is observed annually on

(a) 24th January

(b) 27th February

(d) 27th April

✅ Answer: (a) 24th January

Explanation: National Girl Child Day is celebrated on January 24 every year to raise awareness about the rights of girls in India.

Question 13

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Untouchability has been abolished in India.

(b) In India practising untouchability is an offence.

(d) The offence of untouchability is punishable by law made by the legislature of a State.

✅ Answer: (d) The offence of untouchability is punishable by law made by the legislature of a State.

Explanation: This is not correct because laws abolishing untouchability are made by Parliament, not by individual State legislatures. Article 17 of the Constitution abolishes untouchability and empowers the Central government to make laws on it.

Question 14

According to the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not prohibited?

(a) Conferment of a military title by the State

(b) An Indian citizen accepting any title from a foreign State

(c) An individual, who is not a citizen of India but holding an office of profit in India, accepting a title from a foreign State after informing the President of India

(d) An individual holding an office of trust under the State, accepting any present without informing the Government of India

✅ Answer: (c) An individual, who is not a citizen of India but holding an office of profit in India, accepting a title from a foreign State after informing the President of India

Explanation: Article 18 of the Indian Constitution prohibits Indian citizens from accepting titles from foreign states. However, non-citizens can accept titles with permission. So, option (c) is not prohibited.

Question 15

The citizens of India do not have which one of the following fundamental rights?

(a) Right to reside and settle in any part of India

(b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property

(d) Right to form an association

✅ Answer: (b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property

Explanation: This was once a fundamental right under Article 31, but it was removed by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978. It is now a legal right under Article 300A.

Question 16

Parliament of India consists of

(a) the President of India only

(b) the House of the People and the Council of States only

(d) the Vice-President of India, the House of the People and the Council of States

✅ Answer: (c) the President of India, the House of the People and the Council of States

🧾 Explanation: As per Article 79 of the Constitution, Parliament consists of the President, Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and Lok Sabha (House of the People).

Question 17

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

The President of India can proclaim emergency:

On the ground of war, aggression or armed rebellion.

Only if the decision of the Union Council of Ministers is communicated to him in writing.

Only if both houses of Parliament approve the proclamation after its promulgation.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 only

✅ Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

🧾 Explanation:

✔️ Statement 1 is true — National Emergency can be declared under Article 352.

✔️ Statement 2 is also correct as per Article 74 (President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers).

❌ Statement 3 is incorrect — Emergency is promulgated first, then must be approved by Parliament within 1 month (not a condition before issuing it).

Question 18

The book titled, 'By Many a Happy Accident: Recollections of a Life' has been authored by

(a) R.P. Gupta

(b) Mohammad Hamid Ansari

(d) Kabir Bedi

✅ Answer: (b) Mohammad Hamid Ansari

📖 Explanation: This is the autobiography of former Vice President M. Hamid Ansari, published in 2021.

Question 19

The book titled, 'Platform Scale: For a Post-Pandemic World' has been authored by

(a) Michael Joseph

(b) Meghna Pant

(d) Priyanka Chopra Jonas

✅ Answer: (c) Sangeet Paul Choudary

📚 Explanation: This book discusses digital platforms and economies, especially in a post-COVID world, written by Sangeet Paul Choudary, an expert on platform business models.

Question 20

Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to quorum of Lok Sabha / Parliamentary Committees?

(a) Quorum of the House is one-tenth of the total members of the House.

(b) Quorum of a Parliamentary Committee is, as near as may be, one-third of its total members.

(d) Quorum is ensured only when it is pointed out by a member.

✅ Answer: (d) Quorum is ensured only when it is pointed out by a member ❌

⚖️ Explanation:

This is incorrect. Quorum is required regardless of whether it is pointed out or not.

The House/Committee cannot meet or make decisions unless quorum is met.

Question 21

Which one of the following Ministries/Departments handles matters related to private air transport (including Cargo) Industry?

(a) Department of Heavy Industries

(b) Department of Defence Production

(d) Ministry of Tourism

✅ Answer: (c) Ministry of Civil Aviation

✈️ Explanation: The Ministry of Civil Aviation is responsible for private airlines, cargo, and aviation infrastructure.

Question 22

The Commission of Railway Safety functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of

(a) Labour and Employment

(b) Railways

(d) Civil Aviation

✅ Answer: (d) Civil Aviation

🚦 Explanation: Although it deals with railways, the Commission of Railway Safety (CRS) works under the Ministry of Civil Aviation, ensuring impartial oversight.

Question 23

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the effects of dissolution of Lok Sabha?

The dissolution is irrevocable.

All business pending before the Lok Sabha lapses.

A Bill passed by the Lok Sabha immediately before its dissolution can be taken up by the Rajya Sabha.

Options:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

✔️ Correct – Once the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the dissolution is final and cannot be revoked.

✔️ Correct – All business pending before the Lok Sabha lapses upon its dissolution.

❌ Incorrect – A Bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses upon dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Question 24

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Before 1923, a Bill passed by one House and transmitted to the other House of the Central Legislative Assembly did not lapse upon dissolution of the House which had passed it.

(b) Bills passed by Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha on the date of dissolution of Lok Sabha, lapse.

(c) Only Bills originating in Rajya Sabha which have not been passed by Lok Sabha but are still pending before Rajya Sabha, lapse.

(d) Only Bills originating in Rajya Sabha which have not been passed by Lok Sabha but are still pending before Rajya Sabha, do not lapse.

✅ Correct Answer: (c) Only Bills originating in Rajya Sabha which have not been passed by Lok Sabha but are still pending before Rajya Sabha, lapse.

Explanation:

Statement (c) is not correct. Bills pending in the Rajya Sabha that have not been passed by the Lok Sabha do not lapse upon dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Question 25

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) A Bill can be taken up in a joint sitting of the Houses notwithstanding the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

(b) A Bill cannot be taken up in a joint sitting of the Houses after Lok Sabha is dissolved.

(c) Joint session cannot be convened by the President after dissolution of Lok Sabha even though the President notified his intention to summon the Joint Sitting of the Houses.

(d) There is express provision in the Constitution regarding the effect of dissolution on a Bill which has been passed by the two Houses and sent to the President for assent.

✅ Correct Answer: (b) A Bill cannot be taken up in a joint sitting of the Houses after Lok Sabha is dissolved.

Explanation:

If the Lok Sabha is dissolved before the President issues a summons for a joint sitting, the pending Bill lapses, and no joint sitting can occur.

Question 26

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the effect of dissolution of Lok Sabha?

Supplementary Demands for grants do not lapse.

A motion given in pursuance of Section 3(1) of Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 for removal of a Judge, if admitted, will not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Anything said or done during the existence of a House, can be raised as a privilege issue after that House has been dissolved.

Options:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

✔️ Correct – Supplementary Demands for Grants are financial matters and do not lapse upon dissolution.

✔️ Correct – A motion for the removal of a judge, if admitted, does not lapse upon dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

✔️ Correct – Privilege issues can be raised even after the dissolution of the House in which the matter originated.

Question 27

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Lok Sabha?

The procedure for summoning of Lok Sabha for an emergency session is generally not the same as for a regular session.

The assurances given by Ministers on the floor of the House, which are pending for implementation, are deemed not to lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Business pending before Parliamentary Committees of the Lok Sabha does not lapse on dissolution of Lok Sabha.

Correct answer: ✅ (d) 1, 2 and 3

🧾 Explanation:

✔️ Statement 1: True. Emergency sessions may follow different procedures (e.g., shorter notices).

✔️ Statement 2: True. Assurances pending are carried forward.

✔️ Statement 3: True. Business before Parliamentary Committees may not lapse.

Question 28

Which of the following statements about Attorney General of India is correct?

(a) He has the right to take part in the proceedings and vote in either House of Parliament.

(b) He has the right to take part in the proceedings but has no right to vote in either House of Parliament.

(d) He cannot take part in the Committee meetings of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.

✅ Correct Answer: (b)

🧾 Explanation:

The Attorney General can participate in Parliament and its committees but cannot vote – as per Article 88 of the Constitution.

Question 29

World Economic Forum is headquartered at

(a) Cologne, Geneva, Switzerland

(b) Davos-Klosters, Graubünden, Switzerland

(d) Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates

✅ Correct Answer: (b) Davos-Klosters, Graubünden, Switzerland

🧾 Explanation:

Although Davos is the famous venue of the annual meeting, the actual headquarters of the World Economic Forum is located in Cologny, near Geneva, Switzerland — but since it's not listed, the best option from given choices is (b) which correctly includes Davos and Graubünden.

Question 30

Which one is not a necessary condition for competitiveness of a firm?

(a) Comparable quality of the product with that of rivals

(b) Competitive price with rivals

(d) Economical use of resources by the firm

✅ Correct Answer: (c) Adequate returns to the firm

🧾 Explanation:

Returns are outcomes, not preconditions for competitiveness. Competitiveness is more about price, quality, and efficiency.

Question 31

Competitive advantage of a firm does not imply

(a) Lower price for same value

(b) Same price for higher value

(d) Matching core competencies to the opportunities

✅ Correct Answer: (c) Same price and same value

🧾 Explanation:

This indicates no advantage. Competitive advantage means providing better value or lower cost, not offering the same thing at the same price.

Question 32

Auction is a market where price is

(a) Set by negotiation between buyer and seller

(b) Arrived at by a bidding process

(d) Declared by auctioneer

✅ Correct Answer: (b) Arrived at by a bidding process

🧾 Explanation:

Auction prices are determined by bids – multiple parties compete to offer the highest price (in forward auctions) or lowest (in reverse auctions).

Question 33

Contract is an agreement between two parties which is not

(a) Voluntary

(b) Deliberate

(d) Imposed

✅ Correct Answer: (d) Imposed

🧾 Explanation:

Contracts must be voluntary, deliberate, and binding. If imposed, it’s not a valid contract under the Indian Contract Act.

Question 34

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Tax expenditure is the revenue foregone by the Government due to:

Exemptions under corporation tax

Deductions allowed on account of accelerated depreciations

Deductions on export profits earned by the SEZ units

Correct answer: ✅ (d) 1, 2 and 3

🧾 Explanation:

All three are examples of tax expenditures, i.e., revenue foregone by giving deductions or exemptions from tax liability. These are reported in India’s Tax Expenditure Statement (part of the Union Budget).

Question 35

According to the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) An application for information must be made only in English or in Hindi.

(b) An application seeking information must accompany prescribed fee except for persons below poverty line.

(d) Information can be sought even orally.

✅ Correct Answer: (a)

🧾 Explanation:

❌ (a) is incorrect — An RTI application can be made in English, Hindi, or the official language of the area. (Section 6(1) RTI Act)

✔️ (b), (c), and (d) are correct and aligned with RTI provisions.

Question 36

According to the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) No reasons are required to be given for seeking information.

(b) Information is to be supplied free of cost after two weeks from the date of making the application.

(c) Where an application is made to a public authority for information which is held by another public authority, the application must be transferred within one week to that public authority having the information.

(d) If an information relates to the life of a person, the information must be supplied within one week under section 7(1) of the Right to Information Act, 2005.

✅ Correct Answer: (a)

🧾 Explanation:

✔️ (a) is correct — As per Section 6(2), no reason for requesting information is required.

❌ (b) is incorrect — Info must be supplied within 30 days, not 2 weeks.

❌ (c) is incorrect — Transfer must be done within 5 days, not 7.

❌ (d) is incorrect — Info relating to life and liberty must be given within 48 hours, not 1 week. (Section 7(1))

Question 37

Which of the following statements is/are correct under the Right to Information Act, 2005?

It is not necessary to supply all kinds of information.

Information pertaining to corruption in Central Reserve Police Force must be supplied.

Information pertaining to violation of human rights in Intelligence Bureau must be supplied.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

🧾 Explanation:

✔️ Statement 1 is correct — Certain information is exempt under Section 8 and 24.

✔️ Statement 2 — CRPF is a public authority and corruption-related info must be disclosed.

✔️ Statement 3 — Even exempted organizations (like Intelligence Bureau) must share info in cases of human rights violations (Section 24 proviso).

Question 38

Information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 cannot be denied on which one of the following grounds/cases?

(a) Information relating to copyright subsisting in the State

(b) Information is likely to impede investigation or apprehension of an offender

(d) Personal information affecting privacy of an individual

✅ Correct Answer: (a)

🧾 Explanation:

✔️ Copyrighted information held by public authorities cannot be denied unless it falls under other exemptions.

❌ (b), (c), and (d) are valid grounds for rejection under Sections 8(1)(h), 8(1)(d), and 8(1)(j) respectively.

Q39. Ex Desert Knight-21 Air Exercise

Where was the Indo-French bilateral air exercise "Ex Desert Knight-21" conducted?

(a) Maharashtra

(b) Rajasthan

(d) Tamil Nadu

✅ Correct Answer: (b) Rajasthan

Explanation:

✈️ The exercise was held at Jodhpur Air Force Station in Rajasthan, involving the Indian Air Force and French Air and Space Force.

Q40. Microsoft IDC Launch

Microsoft launched its new India Development Center (IDC) in:

(a) Bangalore

(b) Pune

(d) Hyderabad

✅ Correct Answer: (d) Hyderabad

Explanation:

💻 Microsoft set up the new IDC facility in Hyderabad as a major tech development hub.

Q41. World Unani Day

World Unani Day is observed on:

(a) 11th February

(b) 11th March

(d) 17th March

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 11th February

Explanation:

🩺 This day commemorates the birth anniversary of Hakim Ajmal Khan, a pioneer in Unani medicine.

Q42. NIC Messaging Platform

The National Informatics Centre (NIC) launched an instant messaging platform called:

(a) Samachar

(b) Sandes

(d) Chat

✅ Correct Answer: (b) Sandes

Explanation:

📱 "Sandes" is a government-developed secure messaging platform for official communication.

Q43. First Metro to Use UV Sanitization

Which metro was the first in India to use ultraviolet (UV) rays to sanitize train coaches?

(a) Delhi Metro

(b) Bangalore Metro

(d) Chennai Metro

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Delhi Metro

Explanation:

🚇 Delhi Metro became the first to introduce UV-based sanitization for safer public transport during COVID-19.

Q44. Constitution – Executive Functions

Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct?

The Constitution allows the Union to entrust executive functions to a State with its consent.

A State cannot entrust executive functions to the Union.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

✅ Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

✅ Statement 1 is correct under Article 258.

❌ Statement 2 is wrong — under Article 258A, a State can entrust functions to the Union with consent.

Q45. Right to Religious Freedom – Misinterpretation

Which of the following is NOT included in the right to religious freedom under the Indian Constitution?

(a) Freedom to practice and profess a religion of one's choice

(b) Carrying of Kirpan by a person professing Sikh religion

(d) Freedom to establish and maintain religious and charitable institutions

✅ Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation:

🚫 (c) is not part of religious freedom.

The Constitution does allow regulation of economic, financial, political or secular activities even if they're linked to religion (Article 25(2)).

Q46. Eighth Schedule – Unrecognized Language

Which one of the following languages is NOT recognized in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

(a) English

(b) Sanskrit

(d) Nepali

✅ Correct Answer: (a) English

Explanation:

🗣️ The Eighth Schedule includes 22 officially recognized Indian languages. English is not among them, although it is widely used for official purposes.

Q47. Disqualification of MP – Party-related

A Member of Lok Sabha does NOT become disqualified if he/she:

(a) Voluntarily gives up the membership of the party

(b) Is expelled by the party after election

(d) Abstains from voting against party’s direction

✅ Correct Answer: (b) Is expelled by the political party

Explanation:

📜 Under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), expulsion from the party does not automatically lead to disqualification unless voluntarily given up or votes against the party whip.

Q48. President of India – Eligibility

Which of the following statements are correct?

A person above 35 years is eligible for President.

A person qualified for Lok Sabha is qualified for President.

A person holding an office of profit is ineligible for President.

Options:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

🇮🇳 As per Article 58:

✅ Must be 35+ years old

✅ Must be eligible to be elected to Lok Sabha

✅ Office of profit disqualifies a person

Q49. Hotel Corporation – Ministry Link

Which ministry/department handles the Hotel Corporation of India?

(a) Ministry of Civil Aviation

(b) Ministry of Tourism

(d) Department of Commerce

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Ministry of Civil Aviation

Explanation:

🏨 Hotel Corporation of India is a subsidiary of Air India, hence under Ministry of Civil Aviation.

Q50. MMTC – Administrative Ministry

Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation (MMTC) functions under:

(a) Ministry of Mines

(b) Department of Commerce

(d) Ministry of Earth Sciences

✅ Correct Answer: (b) Department of Commerce

Explanation:

⛏️ MMTC is a major foreign trade enterprise under the Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce & Industry.

Q51. Cadre Not Managed by Ministry of Commerce

Which cadre is NOT managed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry?

(a) Indian Economic Service

(b) Indian Trade Service

(d) Indian Inspection Service

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Indian Economic Service

Explanation:

📊 The Indian Economic Service is managed by the Ministry of Finance, not Commerce.

Q52. SEZ Concession Authority

The Department of Commerce can grant fiscal concessions in SEZs with whose concurrence?

(a) Minister-in-charge

(b) Department of Economic Affairs

(d) Parliament

✅ Correct Answer: (c) Department of Revenue

Explanation:

🏗️ Granting tax-related concessions in Special Economic Zones (SEZs) needs approval of the Department of Revenue, as it deals with taxation.

Q53. Organisation not under Department of Commerce

Which one of the following organisations is NOT under the administrative control of the Department of Commerce?

(a) Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics

(b) Marine Products Export Development Authority

(d) Competition Commission of India

✅ Correct Answer: (d) Competition Commission of India

Explanation:

🏛️ The Competition Commission of India (CCI) comes under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not the Department of Commerce.

Q54. Non-IPR Related Act

Which one of the following Acts is NOT directly related to Intellectual Property Rights?

(a) The Transfer of Property Act, 1882

(b) The Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout Designs Act, 2000

(d) The Patents Act, 1970

✅ Correct Answer: (a) The Transfer of Property Act, 1882

Explanation:

⚖️ The Transfer of Property Act deals with real estate/property rights — not IPR. The rest are all part of India's IPR regime.

Q55. Attorney General – Incorrect Statement

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of the President.

(b) The Attorney General is appointed for a term of five years or till age 65.

(d) The Attorney General can speak in Parliament but has no voting rights.

✅ Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:

🚫 (b) is wrong. There is no fixed term or age limit for the Attorney General under the Constitution. The AG holds office at the pleasure of the President (✅ a), (✅ c), and (✅ d) are correct.

Q56. Lok Sabha Dissolution – Speaker/Deputy

Which of the following is correct regarding dissolution of the Lok Sabha?

(a) Both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker hold their offices

(b) Only the Deputy Speaker vacates his office

(d) Both continue to be Members of Lok Sabha

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker hold their offices

Explanation:

🗳️ Even after Lok Sabha is dissolved, Speaker and Deputy Speaker continue in office until new ones are elected in the next Lok Sabha.

Q57. Speaker of Lok Sabha – Resignation/Functions

Which of the following is correct about the Speaker of Lok Sabha?

(a) Speaker tenders resignation to the President

(b) In Speaker's absence, duties are performed by the Deputy Speaker

(d) Speaker can summon a joint session of Parliament

✅ Correct Answer: (b) When the office of the Speaker is vacant, duties shall be performed by the Deputy Speaker

Explanation:

📘 The Speaker resigns to the Deputy Speaker, not the President. Also, Speaker does not hold office at the President's pleasure. Joint sessions are summoned by the President, not the Speaker.

Q58. Removal of Speaker – Correct Procedure

Which of the following is correct regarding removal of the Speaker?

(a) Speaker may be removed by the President

(b) Speaker may be removed by resolution passed by majority of members of Lok Sabha

(d) Both (b) and (c)

✅ Correct Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)

Explanation:

🧾 The Speaker can be removed by a majority of all members (not just present/voting), with at least 14 days' notice (⛔️ not 21). So technically, correct constitutional procedure involves (b), and (c) is slightly inaccurate. But according to this question’s framing, (d) is the best match.

✅ Note: Constitution says 14 days notice is required [Art. 94(c)] — but if this question was from a paper where 21 days was legally valid, go with (d).

Q59. Suspension of Lok Sabha Members

Which statement is correct regarding suspension from Lok Sabha?

(a) Member automatically suspended for coming to well and obstructing

(b) Suspension happens only after being named by Speaker

(d) Member cannot be suspended automatically even in grave disorder

✅ Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:

🗣️ A member can only be suspended after being named by the Speaker for grave disorder under Rule 374A. No automatic suspension without naming.

Q60. Constitutional Amendments – Correct Statement

Which of the following is correct about Constitutional Amendments?

(a) Presidential election rules can be changed by special majority

(b) Amendment of List in 7th Schedule needs 1/2 states + special majority

(d) Legislative Council bills need special majority in both Houses

✅ Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:

📜 Amendments affecting federal structure (like 7th Schedule) require:

Special majority in Parliament and

Ratification by half of the state legislatures (Art. 368(2)).

Q61. Geothermal Project Location

India’s first geothermal power project by ONGC will be in:

(a) Ladakh

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Mizoram

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Ladakh

Explanation:

⚡ ONGC’s first geothermal power plant is located in the Puga Valley, Ladakh — rich in geothermal energy.

Q62. Sector with Highest GDP Contribution

Which sector contributes the most to India's GDP?

(a) Agriculture

(b) Manufacturing

(d) Mining

✅ Correct Answer: (c) Services sector

Explanation:

💼 The Services sector (like IT, banking, retail) contributes over 50% to India’s GDP — the largest among all.

Q63. Highest ST Population % (Census 2011)

Which state has the highest % of Scheduled Tribe population?

(a) Mizoram

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(d) Madhya Pradesh

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Mizoram

Explanation:

📊 According to Census 2011, Mizoram has >90% ST population — the highest percentage-wise.

Q64. Socio-Economic Factors Affecting Birth Rate

Which factors keep birth rate high in India?

Poverty

Joint family system

Urbanisation

Universal marriage

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

📈 Factors that increase birth rate:

✅ Poverty: Less access to family planning

✅ Joint families: Encourage larger families

✅ Universal marriage: Early and widespread marriages

❌ Urbanisation: Generally lowers birth rate due to lifestyle changes

Q65. Human Development Report & HDI

Which statements are correct?

HDR 2015 focuses on work, not employment.

HDI is composed of education, health, and income — equally weighted.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

✅ Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

📊 The 2015 HDR was titled “Work for Human Development”, emphasizing quality of work.

🧠 HDI = composite of education, health, and income, equally weighted.

Q66. Schools under Mid-Day Meal Scheme

Which type of school is NOT covered under NP-MDMS?

(a) Government schools

(b) Government-aided schools

(d) Private schools

✅ Answer: (d) Private schools

Explanation:

🍽️ The Mid-Day Meal Scheme covers Govt., aided, and local body schools. Private schools are excluded.

Q67. Incorrect Statement – RTI Act

Which statement is NOT correct under the RTI Act, 2005?

(a) No specific qualifications are prescribed

(b) Info Commissioner holds office at pleasure of President

(d) Must have wide knowledge in several domains

✅ Answer: (b)

Explanation:

📜 An Information Commissioner has a fixed term, not "at the pleasure of the President".

✅ The other statements are true.

Q68. 74th Constitutional Amendment – Municipalities

Which statements are correct?

It was passed to constitute Municipalities.

It provides for their elections.

It inserted Part IX-A in the Constitution.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

🏙️ The 74th Amendment Act (1992):

✅ Set up Municipalities

✅ Mandated elections

✅ Inserted Part IX-A (Articles 243P to 243ZG)

Q69. Cygnus Cargo Ship Launcher

Cygnus cargo ship (ISS supply) was launched by:

(a) ISRO

(b) SpaceX

(d) Skylab

✅ Answer: (c) NASA

Explanation:

🚀 Cygnus is built by Northrop Grumman and launched by NASA to supply the International Space Station.

Q70. Citizenship – Correct Statements

1. Person born outside India (1950–1992), if father was Indian = citizen by descent.

2. Illegal migrant can get citizenship via naturalization.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

✅ Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

🧬 Statement 1 is correct – Birth outside India + Indian parent = citizen by descent.

🚫 Illegal migrants are not eligible for citizenship by naturalization.

Q71. RTI Act – Partial Information Denial

Which statements are correct when only part of the information is supplied under RTI Act, 2005?

Reason for severance

Address of the decision-making authority

Right to review the decision

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

📜 As per Section 10 of the RTI Act, when part of the info is withheld, the applicant must be informed of:

The reasons

The authority

The right to appeal

Q72. Snakepedia App – Origin State

Which state launched the "Snakepedia" mobile app for snakebite awareness and treatment?

(a) Kerala

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(d) Uttar Pradesh

✅ Answer: (a) Kerala

Explanation:

🐍 "Snakepedia" was developed in Kerala by a team of doctors, scientists, and photographers to help with snakebite management.

Q73. Carbon Watch App – First State/UT

Which was the first State/UT to launch "Carbon Watch" mobile app for personal carbon footprint tracking?

(a) Delhi

(b) Karnataka

(d) Chandigarh

✅ Answer: (d) Chandigarh

Explanation:

🌱 Chandigarh launched "Carbon Watch", a mobile app to help residents measure and reduce their carbon footprint.

Q74. Asian Online Shooting Championship – Organizer

Who organized the first-ever Asian Online Shooting Championship where India topped the medals tally?

(a) Kuwait Shooting Federation

(b) Japan Shooting Federation

(d) Israel Shooting Federation

✅ Answer: (c) Taiwan Shooting Federation

Explanation:

🔫 The event was conducted by Taiwan Shooting Federation, and 🇮🇳 India topped the medal tally.

Q75. Helina & Dhruvastra Missile Trials – Location

DRDO carried out joint user trials of Helina & Dhruvastra ATGMs from ALH in:

(a) Odisha

(b) Rajasthan

(d) Punjab

✅ Answer: (b) Rajasthan

Explanation:

🚁 DRDO successfully tested Helina and Dhruvastra anti-tank guided missiles from Advanced Light Helicopters (ALH) in Rajasthan test ranges.

Q76. Correct Constitutional Statement

Which statement is correct?

(a) Any citizen above 18 can be PM

(b) Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Parliament

(d) President decides MP disqualification after consulting Supreme Court

✅ Answer: (b)

Explanation:

🧑‍⚖️ As per Article 75(3), the Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (Parliament).

Q77. No Special Provision Under Part XXI

Which state is NOT listed in Part XXI for special provisions?

(a) Maharashtra

(b) Gujarat

(d) Bihar

✅ Answer: (b) Gujarat

Explanation:

📘 Part XXI of the Constitution (Articles 370–371J) provides special provisions for certain states like Maharashtra, AP, Bihar etc. Gujarat is not included.

Q78. Preventive Detention – Correct Statement

Detainee has no rights beyond Art. 22(4) and 22(5)

Detainee can get bail if kept beyond 24 hrs without magistrate order

✅ Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

🚫 Under preventive detention, the regular 24-hour bail rule does not apply. Article 22(4) & (5) are the only safeguards.

Q79. Supreme Court – No Special Leave Power

SC has no power to grant SLP against:

(a) National Green Tribunal

(b) National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

(d) Armed forces court judgments

✅ Answer: (d)

Explanation:

⚖️ Under Article 136, SC has wide powers for SLP. But no SLP is allowed for armed forces tribunal decisions — covered under separate military justice system.

Q80. Justiciability – Correct Statement

Which is correct?

(a) DPSPs are not justiciable

(b) Ninth Schedule laws are not justiciable

(d) Ordinances are not justiciable

✅ Answer: (a)

Explanation:

📜 Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) are not enforceable by courts, i.e., not justiciable.

Other options are partially true or outdated post judicial review.

Q81. Who Drafts Bills?

Drafting of government bills is the responsibility of:

(a) Ministry concerned

(b) Ministry of Law and Justice

(d) Ministry of Home Affairs

✅ Answer: (b) Ministry of Law and Justice

Explanation:

🖋️ The Legislative Department of the Ministry of Law and Justice is responsible for drafting all government bills.

Q82. Control of Bharat Wagon & Lagan Jute Companies

Which Ministry controls these companies?

(a) Ministry of Railways

(b) Ministry of Textiles

(d) Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises

✅ Answer: (a) Ministry of Railways

Explanation:

🚆 Companies like Bharat Wagon and Burn Standard are railway-related PSUs, thus fall under Ministry of Railways.

Q83. Public Enterprises Selection Board – Control

Under which ministry does P.E.S.B. function?

(a) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

(b) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

(d) Competition Commission

✅ Answer: (b)

🧠 Explanation:

📋 The Public Enterprises Selection Board (PESB) operates under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, responsible for selecting top-level executives in PSUs.

Q84. MPLADS Monitoring Responsibility

Who monitors the MPLADS scheme?

(a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha Secretariats

(b) Ministry of Finance

(d) Ministry of Home Affairs

✅ Answer: (c)

📊 Explanation:

The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is responsible for overseeing the MPLADS scheme.

Q85. Nuclear Science Advancement Responsibility

Who handles scientific research in nuclear sciences?

(a) Department of Atomic Energy

(b) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

(d) Ministry of Science and Technology

✅ Answer: (a)

⚛️ Explanation:

The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) deals with nuclear science and research, and assists institutions and universities in the field.

Q86. C-DOT – Nature and Control

What is the status of C-DOT?

(a) Non-existent

(b) A private sector entity

(d) Under Ministry of Communications

✅ Answer: (d)

📞 Explanation:

Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT) is a public telecom R&D center under the Ministry of Communications.

Q87. Food Trade Treaties – Responsibility

Who handles treaties on food trade with foreign countries?

(a) Ministry of Consumer Affairs

(b) Directorate General of Foreign Trade

(d) Ministry of Foreign Affairs

✅ Answer: (b)

🌍 Explanation:

The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) under Ministry of Commerce and Industry deals with trade treaties, including those involving food grains.

Q88. SFIO – Administrative Control

Serious Fraud Investigation Office functions under:

(a) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

(b) RBI

(d) SEBI

✅ Answer: (a)

💼 Explanation:

The SFIO investigates corporate frauds and functions under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

Q89. Open-Air Theatres – Ministry Proposal

Which ministry to approach for open-air theatre projects?

(a) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting

(b) Ministry of Culture

(d) Ministry of Home Affairs

✅ Answer: (b)

🎭 Explanation:

Such cultural projects come under the Ministry of Culture, especially when non-governmental organizations are involved.

Q90. Not under Ministry of Development of NER

Which of the following is NOT under the Ministry of DoNER?

(a) Sikkim Mining Corporation

(b) Planning of roads & inland waterways

(d) North Eastern Council

✅ Answer: (c) Border Roads Organisation

🛣️ Explanation:

BRO is under the Ministry of Defence, not the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER). Others fall under DoNER’s purview.

Q91. Speaker Pro-tem – Correct Statement

Which of the following statements about the Speaker Pro-tem is correct?

(a) Elected by Lok Sabha

(b) Appointed by President and signs Roll of Members

(d) Appointed by Prime Minister

✅ Answer: (b)

🧠 Explanation:

🗳️ The Speaker Pro-tem is appointed by the President and presides over the first sitting of the new Lok Sabha, primarily to administer oath to new members and sign the Roll of Members.

Q92. Panel of Chairmen – Correct Statement

Which statement is correct about the Panel of Chairmen in Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha?

(a) From the list of Chairmen, appointments are made to committees

(b) Constituted by the President

(d) Panel is made for each session

✅ Answer: (c)

🧠 Explanation:

👥 Members of the Panel of Chairmen are nominated by the Speaker and can preside over Lok Sabha in absence of both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker. (Art. 95 & Rule 9 of Lok Sabha Rules)

Q93. Oath & Proceedings – Correct Statements

Oath-taking is not a proceeding if not by Presiding Officer

Oath is part of House proceedings

Oath cannot be taken outside the Chamber

✅ Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

🧠 Explanation:

📝 All three statements are correct:

Oath must be before a Presiding Officer

It is part of the House's official proceedings

It must be taken inside the House chamber

Q94. Membership Status – Correct Statements

Member from date of declaration

Member from date of oath

Cannot ask questions unless oath is taken

✅ Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

🧠 Explanation:

🗓️

A person becomes an MP from the date of declaration of results by the Returning Officer ✅

But cannot participate in House proceedings (like asking questions) until oath is taken ✅

Statement 2 is incorrect

Q95. MPs – Nomination and Joining Party

Elected/nominated MPs get certificate from Returning Officer

Nominated Member gets Letter of Nomination from Ministry of Law

Nominated Member can join any party within 6 months

✅ Answer: (d) 2 and 3 only

🧠 Explanation:

📃

Nominated MPs get their letter from the Ministry of Law & Justice ✅

They can join a political party within 6 months from nomination without risking disqualification ✅

Elected MPs get certificate from Returning Officer, but nominated MPs do not ❌

Q96. Rights of Members Before Taking Oath

Which of the following is correct?

(a) Can resign and seek leave

(b) Entitled to sit and vote

(d) Can be elected/nominated to Committee

✅ Answer: (d)

🧠 Explanation:

🗳️ An MP cannot sit/vote until oath, but they can be elected/nominated to a committee and function as a member.

Q97. Leave of Absence – Incorrect Statement

Which is NOT correct about MP's leave of absence?

(a) Absent for 60 days → seat may be vacated

(b) Account includes prorogation/adjournment

(d) Constitution is only directory, not mandatory

✅ Answer: (c)

🧠 Explanation:

📆 The 60-day period can be broken, not necessarily unbroken. So (c) is incorrect. Others are accurate as per Article 101(4).

Q98. Lok Sabha – Incorrect Statement

Which is NOT correct about Lok Sabha?

(a) President can summon/prorogue

(b) Speaker decides meeting days

(d) Quorum is necessary to start sitting

✅ Answer: (c)

🧠 Explanation:

👥 Ministers' presence is not mandatory to constitute a sitting. Only quorum (10% of total) is required. So (c) is wrong.

Q99. Department of Pharmaceuticals – Parent Ministry

Under which Ministry is Department of Pharmaceuticals?

(a) Chemicals and Fertilizers

(b) Health and Family Welfare

(d) Consumer Affairs

✅ Answer: (a)

🧪 Explanation:

The Department of Pharmaceuticals is a part of the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.

Q100. Nature of Climate Change

Climate change is:

(a) Positive good

(b) Negative good

(d) Local positive externality

✅ Answer: (c)

🌍 Explanation:

Climate change is considered a global negative externality caused by GHG emissions. It affects beyond national boundaries.

Q101. Market – Non-essential Condition

Which is NOT essential for a market to exist?

(a) Product

(b) Buyers

(d) Place

✅ Answer: (d)

📉 Explanation:

Digital markets prove physical "place" is not essential. The market exists if there are buyers, sellers, and product.

Q102. Literacy in Metros (Census 2011)

Which metro had highest literacy rate in 2011 Census?

(a) Mumbai

(b) Delhi

(d) Hyderabad

✅ Answer: (c) Bengaluru

📊 Explanation:

According to Census 2011, Bengaluru had the highest literacy rate among the four major metros listed.

Q103. Surrogacy – Birth Certificate Name

According to the Law Commission, whose name appears on the birth certificate in surrogacy?

(a) Biological mother

(b) Commissioning parents only

(d) Surrogate mother and her husband

✅ Answer: (b) Commissioning parents only

🧠 Explanation:

👶 As per Law Commission recommendations (Report No. 228), the commissioning parents are to be recognized as legal parents on the birth certificate, not the surrogate.

Q104. Contract Labour – Legal Definition

Under the Contract Labour Act, 1970, a contract labour is:

(a) Hired, supervised, contracted, and paid by contractor

(b) Hired and contracted by contractor but paid by user

(d) Hired and contracted by contractor but supervised and paid by user

✅ Answer: (a)

🧠 Explanation:

🛠️ Contract labour is hired, supervised, and paid by the contractor for work in another (user) enterprise. The user has indirect control only.

Q105. Skilled Workforce in India (Aged 20–24)

What percentage of India’s 20–24-year-old workforce has formal vocational training?

(a) < 5%

(b) 5–10%

(d) 15–20%

✅ Answer: (a) less than 5%

📊 Explanation:

🔧 As per NSDC and related reports, less than 5% of India’s youth in this age group receives formal vocational training — a very low rate compared to developed nations.

Q106. UT with Legislative Assembly

Which Union Territory has a Legislative Assembly?

(a) Puducherry

(b) Chandigarh

(d) Daman and Diu

✅ Answer: (a) Puducherry

🏛️ Explanation:

Only Puducherry and Delhi (among UTs) have Legislative Assemblies.

Q107. Fundamental Rights – Incorrect Statement

Which is NOT true about Fundamental Rights?

(a) Guaranteed against both Executive & Legislature

(b) SC strikes arbitrary state actions

(d) SC can’t use its power suo motu or through PIL

✅ Answer: (d)

⚖️ Explanation:

❌ The SC can exercise jurisdiction suo motu and via PILs to enforce Fundamental Rights. Hence, (d) is incorrect.

Q108. Governor – Incorrect Statement

Which statement about Governor is NOT correct?

(a) No diplomatic/military power

(b) Has powers similar to President

(d) Can nominate 1 Anglo-Indian member

✅ Answer: (c)

🧠 Explanation:

❌ Governor does not have equal power as the President in appointing judges of the HC. That power lies with the President under Article 217, in consultation with the Governor and Chief Justice.

Q109. State Executive – Incorrect Statement

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) All executive action of the State Government shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Chief Minister.

(b) It is the duty of the Chief Minister to communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to administration.

(d) The validity of rules made by the Governor shall not be called in question.

✅ Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:

❌ (a) is incorrect. Executive actions are taken in the name of the Governor, not the Chief Minister.

✅ The other statements are constitutionally valid.

Q110. Contingency Fund – Incorrect Statement

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The Legislature of a State may establish a Contingency Fund.

(b) The Contingency Fund of the State shall be placed at the disposal of the Chief Minister.

(d) The Contingency Fund is used for unforeseen expenditure pending legislative approval.

✅ Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:

❌ (b) is incorrect. The fund is placed at the disposal of the Governor, not the Chief Minister.

✅ Other statements accurately describe the nature of Contingency Funds.

Q111. Marine Resources – Survey Responsibility

All matters related to mapping and assessment of non-living marine resources fall under:

(a) National Institute of Oceanography

(b) Ministry of Earth Sciences

(d) Coast Guard Organisation

✅ Correct Answer: (b) Ministry of Earth Sciences

Explanation:

🌊 The Ministry of Earth Sciences is responsible for ocean science, surveys, and marine non-living resources.

Q112. Ganga River Responsibility

Conservation and pollution control of the Ganga (excluding its tributaries) is under:

(a) Ministry of Jal Shakti

(b) Ministry of Earth Sciences

(d) Ministry of Science and Technology

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Ministry of Jal Shakti

Explanation:

🏞️ The Ministry of Jal Shakti handles conservation and pollution control of the Ganga river.

Q113. Himalayan Expeditions

Which ministry handles matters related to Himalayan expeditions?

(a) Ministry of Home Affairs

(b) Ministry of Human Resource Development

(d) Ministry of External Affairs

✅ Correct Answer: (c) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports

Explanation:

🏔️ Himalayan mountaineering and expeditions come under sports and adventure activities, hence the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.

Q114. Not Under Ministry of External Affairs

Which of the following is NOT handled by the Ministry of External Affairs?

(a) Notification regarding state of war

(b) World Health Organization representation

(d) Indian Council of Cultural Relations

✅ Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:

❌ (a) falls under the President/Government of India and is not directly managed by MEA.

✅ MEA handles diplomacy, WHO participation, border demarcation, and cultural relations.

Q115. Adjournment in Lok Sabha – Incorrect Statement

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about adjournment in Lok Sabha?

(a) The Speaker can call a sitting before the scheduled time after sine die adjournment.

(b) During discussion on adjournment motion, Speaker cannot adjourn the House.

(d) The Speaker cannot adjourn the House sine die without approval of the President.

✅ Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation:

❌ (d) is incorrect. The Speaker can adjourn the House sine die without needing Presidential approval.

✅ Other statements are procedurally correct.

Q116. Financial Bills – Types and Conditions

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

The Financial Bills of category B, if enacted and brought into operation, would involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Financial Bills of category A can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.

Financial Bills of category B require recommendation of the President for their introduction.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

🧾 Statement 1: ✅ Correct. Financial Bills of category B can result in expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.

🏛️ Statement 2: ✅ Correct. All Financial Bills (like Money Bills) can only be introduced in Lok Sabha.

❌ Statement 3: Incorrect. Only Financial Bills of category A need President’s recommendation. Category B bills may not always require it.

Q117. Railway Convention Committee

Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the Railway Convention Committee?

(a) It is a Committee constituted by the Minister of Railways.

(b) It is an ad hoc Committee of Parliament to review the rate of dividend which is payable by the Railways to the general revenues.

(d) Minister of Finance is a nominated member of the Railway Convention Committee.

✅ Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:

🚫 (a) Incorrect Statement: The committee is not constituted by the Minister of Railways. It is an ad hoc Parliamentary Committee.

✅ (b), (c), and (d) are all correct.

Q118. Core CPI vs Headline CPI

Core CPI inflation is generally lower than headline CPI inflation because:

(a) Food inflation is generally higher than non-food inflation

(b) Food prices fluctuate too widely over the year

(d) Share of food in consumption basket has been increasing over time

✅ Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:

🛒 Core CPI excludes volatile items like food and fuel.

🥦 Food inflation tends to be higher and more erratic, making headline CPI (which includes food) higher than core CPI.

Q119. JAM in DBT context

In the context of Direct Benefit Transfers (DBT), JAM stands for:

(a) Jan Dhan Yojana, Aadhaar Yojana and Use of Mobile Technology

(b) Janata Janardan Awas Money Transfer

(d) Jan Dhan Yojana, Awas Yojana and MNREGA

✅ Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:

📱 JAM = Jan Dhan + Aadhaar + Mobile.

It is used to ensure efficient and targeted transfer of government subsidies and benefits.

Q120. IMD’s Thunderstorm Research Testbed

The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has announced to set up the first ‘Thunderstorm Research Testbed’ in which state?

(a) Odisha

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(d) West Bengal

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Odisha

Explanation:

⚡ IMD set up the first Thunderstorm Research Testbed in Balasore, Odisha, to improve prediction models for thunderstorms.

Pape 2 of SO AFHQ 2019-20

Q1. Integrated Headquarters of the Ministry of Defence

Which of the following are part of the Integrated Headquarters of the Ministry of Defence?

Army Headquarters

Naval Headquarters

Defence Staff Headquarters

Air Force Headquarters

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

The Integrated Headquarters of MoD includes:

Army HQ

Naval HQ

Air Force HQ

HQ of Integrated Defence Staff

Q2. Statutory Body – Not Included

Which one of the following is NOT a statutory body?

(a) Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)

(b) Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC)

(d) Central Information Commission (CIC)

✅ Correct Answer: (a) CBSE

Explanation:

CBSE is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Education, but it is not created by a statute.

CBFC, CVC, and CIC are created by laws passed by Parliament.

Q3. Secretary to Government of India – Correct Roles

Which of the following statements are correct regarding a Secretary to the Government of India?

Disciplinary authority for all staff in the department

Chief Accounting Authority of the Ministry/Department

Administrative Head of the Department

Member of department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee along with the Minister

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

The Secretary is the administrative head and the chief accounting authority of the Ministry/Department.

Disciplinary authority depends on cadre control.

He/She is not automatically a member of Parliamentary Committees.

Q4. Ex-Servicemen Health Scheme – Inter-ministry Disagreement

A proposal concerning the Ex-servicemen Health Scheme was referred by the Ministry of Defence to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The Health Ministry did not give concurrence. What is the correct step?

(a) The decision can be taken by the appropriate Cabinet Committee.

(b) The proposal has to be dropped.

(d) The Defence Minister can overrule the objection with recorded reasons.

✅ Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:

If inter-ministerial concurrence is not achieved, the matter goes to the appropriate Cabinet Committee, not unilaterally decided by a Minister.

Q5. Authority to Approve a Bill Before Introduction in Parliament

A Bill requiring legislative approval can be introduced in Parliament after approval from:

(a) Prime Minister only

(b) Department-related Standing Committee and Prime Minister

(d) Cabinet or the appropriate Cabinet Committee

✅ Correct Answer: (d) Cabinet or the appropriate Cabinet Committee

Explanation:

Bills requiring legislative approval must be approved by the Union Cabinet (or appropriate Cabinet Committee) before being introduced in Parliament.

Q6. Use of e-Office, VPN and Digital Signature

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

There is no bar on handling classified information through e-office by officers of the rank of Joint Secretary and above.

Officers of the rank of Under Secretary and above (or equivalent) can be provided Virtual Private Network (VPN) access for working from home.

Officers of the rank of Dealing Officers and above are required to use Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) for signing e-Files.

DSCs are to be procured by individual officers, not by their Ministry/Department.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation:

❌ Statement 1: Handling classified information via e-office has restrictions, even for senior officers.

❌ Statement 2: VPN access is not universal; subject to policy and role.

✅ Statement 3: Use of DSC is mandatory for officers handling e-Files.

❌ Statement 4: DSCs are arranged by the Ministry/Department, not by individual officers.

Q7. Official Communication – Incorrect Statements

Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct?

No oral directions can be given by officers below Joint Secretary rank.

No officer can give directions via social media platforms.

No officer may direct subordinates on matters where the subordinate has decision-making power.

If directions come from someone other than the immediate superior, the subordinate must report to his/her immediate superior.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

❌ Statement 1: Oral directions are allowed under certain situations, but they must be confirmed in writing later.

❌ Statement 2: While not recommended, directions via digital means (including social media in emergencies) may occur.

❌ Statement 3: Senior officers can guide subordinates, even when subordinates are decision-makers, as part of oversight.

✅ Statement 4: This is correct — when orders are given by someone who is not the immediate superior, the matter must be reported.

Q8. Office Memorandum – Incorrect Statements

Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct regarding an Office Memorandum (OM)?

It is not to be used by Ministries for communicating with their employees.

It is written in third person.

It bears no salutation.

It can be used for seeking and providing information among various sections within the Ministry.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

✅ Statement 4 is correct: OM is used for inter-departmental communication within the Ministry.

❌ Statement 1 is incorrect: OMs are used to communicate with employees.

❌ Statement 2: It is generally written in first person plural ("the undersigned").

❌ Statement 3: It may or may not bear a salutation, but this is not a defining limitation.

Q9. Communication with CAG – Incorrect Statements

Which of the following statements regarding communication with the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) are NOT correct?

These can be sent directly by the Ministry concerned in all cases.

These can be sent directly if they are related to audit paragraphs.

These can be sent only through Ministry of Finance, except when reference is related to audit paragraphs.

There are no specific instructions on this subject.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1 and 4 only

Explanation:

❌ Statement 1 is not correct: All communication is not allowed directly in all cases.

✅ Statement 2 is correct: Ministries may communicate directly on audit paragraphs.

✅ Statement 3 is correct.

❌ Statement 4 is incorrect: Instructions do exist, especially in audit and finance manuals.

Q10. Orders in Name of the President – Incorrect Statement

Which of the following is NOT correct regarding orders made in the name of the President of India?

(a) These should be expressed to be made in the name of the President.

(b) These can be signed by officers with regular/ex-officio secretariat status, rank of Under Secretary or above.

(d) These can be signed by officers authorized under the Authentication (Orders and Other Instruments) Rules, 2002.

✅ Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation:

❌ Statement (c) is too restrictive — It’s not necessary that only Secretary/Additional Secretary sign.

✅ Officers authorized under 2002 rules and Under Secretary and above can sign such orders.

Q11. Citizen’s/Client’s Charter – Correct Statements

Which of the following statements are correct about the Citizen’s/Client’s Charter?

It is enforceable in a court of law.

The term "citizens" includes companies, trusts, unions, etc.

Government agencies availing services of other government agencies are considered "clients".

Contact Officers on Citizens Charter are appointed in consultation with the Central Vigilance Commission.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

❌ Statement 1: Citizen’s Charter is not legally enforceable; it's a voluntary commitment.

✅ Statement 2: "Citizen" includes corporate/legal persons.

✅ Statement 3: Govt agencies can be clients to other agencies.

❌ Statement 4: Appointment of Contact Officers is not under CVC consultation.

Q12. Leave and Attendance Rules – Incorrect Statements

Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct?

An employee may be permitted to leave the office early on consecutive days with sanction of the Secretary.

Persons reaching office within 10 minutes of opening hours are not considered late.

Late attendance can be condoned unless it becomes frequent.

Casual Leave is not a recognized form of leave nor is it subject to any rules.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 4 only

🧠 Explanation:

✅ Statements 1–3 are acceptable under discretion or existing service rules.

❌ Statement 4 is factually incorrect – Casual Leave is a recognized form of leave and governed by specific rules.

Q13. Administrative Tribunals – Correct Statements

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985?

It does not apply to secretarial staff of either House of Parliament.

A Division Bench hears Single Bench cases involving questions of law.

Applications to the Tribunal can be filed within 2 years of the final order.

Disciplinary cases involving major punishments can be taken only by a Larger Bench.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

🧠 Explanation:

✅ Statement 1 is correct – Secretarial staff of Parliament are exempt.

✅ Statement 2 is correct – Law-related matters go to a Division Bench.

❌ Statement 3 is incorrect – Application must generally be filed within 1 year, extendable to 6 months on sufficient cause.

❌ Statement 4 – No such rule mandates only a Larger Bench for major punishment cases.

Q14. Termination of Lok Sabha Session

Which term describes the formal termination of a session of the Lok Sabha?

(a) Adjournment

(b) Prorogation

(d) Guillotine

✅ Correct Answer: (b) Prorogation

🧠 Explanation:

Adjournment: Temporary break.

✅ Prorogation: Formal end of a session by the President.

Dissolution: End of the full term (House ends).

Guillotine: Time-cutting procedure in financial business.

Q15. e-Office Terminology – Correct Statements

Which of the following are correct in the context of e-Office procedure?

“Come-back case” refers to a case sent back for further action or summary.

“Docketing” is entering serial numbers in the notes portion for correspondence identification.

“Metadata” stores data about structure, context, and meaning of data.

“Standard Taxonomy” is used across ministries to classify files, receipts, etc.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

🧠 Explanation:

All four terms are correctly described and part of standard e-office vocabulary.

Q16. Urgency and Linking in e-Office

Which of the following statements regarding e-Office procedures are correct?

The only two urgency gradings allowed are "Immediate" and "Priority".

Urgency gradings must be reviewed and revised at different stages of case progress.

A reference e-File in use or circulation can be linked with other e-Files in read-only mode.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

🧠 Explanation:

All three statements align with e-Office practices:

Only "Immediate" and "Priority" are valid urgency tags.

Grading must be reviewed during file progress.

Reference files can be linked in read-only mode to avoid modification while in use.

Q17. Single e-File System (SFS)

Which of the following statements regarding Single e-File System (SFS) are correct?

Adopted when a Non-Secretariat Organization (NSO) needs sanction/order on non-delegated matters.

SFS files need not bear an ID number.

SFS files are routed through the department’s central registry.

Secretariat noting on SFS starts on a new page.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

✅ Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

🧠 Explanation:

✅ (1): SFS is used when NSOs seek approval beyond their authority.

❌ (2): ID number is mandatory for tracking.

✅ (3): Routed via central registry for processing.

✅ (4): Noting starts on fresh page in Secretariat for clarity.

Q18. Allocation of Business Rules – Ministerial Responsibility

According to the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, the President may entrust specified business affecting one/more departments to which of the following?

Prime Minister only

A Minister in charge of any other department

A Minister without portfolio

Home Minister

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

✅ Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

🧠 Explanation:

Under the 1961 Rules, the President may entrust business to:

A Minister in charge of another department ✅

A Minister without portfolio ✅

Not exclusively to PM or Home Minister.

Q19. Foreign Government Communication

Which form of communication is used when communicating with foreign governments?

(a) Office Memorandum

(b) Demi-official Letter

(d) Letter

✅ Answer: (d) Letter

🧠 Explanation:

📨 Letters are the official and formal mode for communication with foreign governments — concise, diplomatic, and protocol-friendly.

Q20. Department-related Standing Committees of Parliament

Which of the following statements about Department-related Standing Committees are correct?

Each committee has not more than 45 members.

Members are drawn from both Houses of Parliament.

The Minister of the concerned Department serves as Chairman.

One function is to consider Demands for Grants and report to the House.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

🧠 Explanation:

✅ Statement 1: Committees consist of 31 members (21 from Lok Sabha + 10 from Rajya Sabha) – always less than 45.

✅ Statement 2: Members are from both Houses.

❌ Statement 3: Ministers cannot be members or Chairmen of these committees.

✅ Statement 4: They review Demands for Grants and submit reports.

Q21. Period Considered as Duty (Fundamental Rules)

Which of the following are considered as 'period spent on duty' under Fundamental Rules for Government servants?

Training in professional or technical subjects

Training in the Territorial Army

Training at the National Defence College (for IA&AS officers)

Period of waiting for posting after returning from leave

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

🧠 Explanation:

All listed periods are considered 'on duty' under the Fundamental Rules.

Q22. Subsistence Allowance During Suspension

Under which Fundamental Rule is subsistence allowance payable to a Government servant placed under suspension?

(a) FR 22(1)(a)(1)

(b) FR 52

(d) FR 54(1)

✅ Correct Answer: (c) FR 53

🧠 Explanation:

FR 53 specifically deals with subsistence allowance, leave, and other entitlements during the period of suspension.

Q23. Additional Charge – Pay and Allowances

Consider the following regarding 'Combination of Appointments' under Fundamental Rules:

Pay + Additional Pay cannot exceed ₹2,25,000.

Additional pay is admissible for current charge of routine duties.

Deputation allowance is admissible for holding additional charge of an ex-cadre post.

Which statements are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

🧠 Explanation:

✅ Statement 1: As per DoPT rules, total pay is capped (₹2.25 lakh).

❌ Statement 2: Additional pay is not given for routine current charge.

❌ Statement 3: Deputation allowance is not applicable for holding additional charge.

Q24. Honorarium – Not Admissible Items

For which of the following works is honorarium NOT admissible under Fundamental Rules?

Preparing index of old files in record rooms

Temporary increases in cash book in Cash Section

Special work in arbitration case

Exemplary work of commendable nature and devotion to duty

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

🧠 Explanation:

Honorarium is not admissible for routine clerical tasks like indexing or cash book balancing.

It can be paid for work involving special skills like arbitration or outstanding duty.

Q25. Emoluments for Licence Fee Recovery

Which of the following are included in calculating ‘emoluments’ for licence fee recovery?

Pay

Allowances attached to Indian Police Medal

Messing Allowance

Family pension under CCS (Pension) Rules

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

🧠 Explanation:

Pay and messing allowance count toward emoluments.

Family pension and medal-related allowances do not.

Q26. Damages for Unauthorized Occupation

What is the penalty for unauthorized occupation of Type IV general pool accommodation (3rd month) in Delhi?

(a) 40× licence fee

(b) 40× licence fee + 5%

(d) 40× licence fee + 20%

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 40 times of licence fee plus 20%

🧠 Explanation:

As per Directorate of Estates rules, penalties increase progressively. For the 3rd month, it's 40× + 20%.

Q27. Post with Definite Pay for Limited Time

What is a post with a definite rate of pay sanctioned for a limited time called?

(a) Temporary post

(b) Permanent post

(d) Honorary post

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Temporary post

🧠 Explanation:

A temporary post is created for a specific period with fixed pay, unlike a tenure post, which is time-bound but often part of a career structure.

Q28. Pay Fixation under FR 22(1)(a)(1)

Within how much time must a government servant opt for pay fixation after promotion under FR 22(1)(a)(1)?

(a) One month

(b) Two months

(d) Five months

✅ Correct Answer: (a) One month

🧠 Explanation:

The option must be exercised within one month from the date of promotion or joining the new post.

Q29. Lien – Correct Statements

Which of the following about ‘Lien’ are correct under Fundamental Rules?

Lien is a government servant’s right to hold a regular post.

A probationer also enjoys lien.

Employees promoted on regular basis to higher posts hold lien.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only

🧠 Explanation:

✅ Lien is the right to hold a permanent post.

❌ Probationers do not have lien unless confirmed.

✅ Promoted (regularly) officers retain lien.

Q30. Source of Honorarium Payment

Honorarium to a Central Government servant is paid from which fund?

(a) Public Fund

(b) Consolidated Fund of India

(d) Local Fund

✅ Correct Answer: (b) Consolidated Fund of India

🧠 Explanation:

All salaries, pensions, and honoraria to government servants are paid from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Q31. Suspension – Rules and Benefits

In the case of a Government servant placed under suspension, which of the following are correct?

Licence fee-free concession ceases from the date of suspension.

Leave may not be granted to a suspended Government servant.

Suspension period is treated as duty if the proceedings end with only a minor penalty.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

🧠 Explanation:

✅ Statement 1: As per suspension rules, licence fee concessions are withdrawn.

✅ Statement 2: Leave is generally not allowed during suspension.

✅ Statement 3: If only a minor penalty is imposed, the suspension may be treated as duty.

Q32. Voluntary Retirement – Fundamental Rule

Under which Fundamental Rule can the appointing authority compulsorily retire a Group ‘C’ (Class III) Government servant in public interest after 30 years of service?

(a) F.R. 56(a)

(b) F.R. 56(j)

(d) F.R. 56(i)

✅ Correct Answer: (b) F.R. 56(j)

🧠 Explanation:

F.R. 56(j) empowers the appointing authority to retire employees in public interest after completion of 30 years of service (for Group C officers).

Q33. Retirement Age – CHS Doctors

Doctors in Central Health Service (CHS) have the option to serve up to the age of:

(a) 62 years

(b) 63 years

(d) 67 years

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 65 years

🧠 Explanation:

As per government rules, doctors in Central Health Services are allowed to serve until 65 years, provided they opt for the extension and meet service criteria.

Q34. Allotment of General Pool Residential Accommodation (GPRA)

Which of the following statements are correct regarding GPRA allotment?

A unified waiting list for Type I to Type IV accommodations is prepared.

Allotment for an officer under suspension is made as if suspension hasn’t occurred.

Only the allottee himself can accept the accommodation.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

🧠 Explanation:

❌ Statement 1: There is no single unified waiting list across Types I–IV; separate waiting lists exist by type.

✅ Statement 2: Suspension does not affect eligibility for accommodation allotment.

❌ Statement 3: The allottee or their authorized person can accept it.

Q35. Date of Birth Change – Time Limit

Within how many years from appointment can a Government servant request correction of date of birth?

(a) 2 years

(b) 3 years

(d) 10 years

✅ Correct Answer: (b) 3 years

🧠 Explanation:

As per DoPT guidelines, change of date of birth can be requested within 3 years of entering service — subject to strict conditions and evidence.

Q36. Joining Time – Incorrect Statements

Consider the following statements regarding joining time:

It starts from the day after the old post is relinquished, regardless of forenoon or afternoon.

12 days joining time is allowed for transfers involving ≤1000 km and road travel ≤200 km.

Half-day joining time is allowed for transfer within the same station.

Which of the above are NOT correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

🧠 Explanation:

✅ Statement 1 is correct: Joining time begins the next day after charge is relinquished.

❌ Statement 2: As per rules, only 6 days are allowed for ≤1000 km and ≤200 km road.

❌ Statement 3: No joining time is allowed for same station; only actual transit time if on duty.

Q37. HRA – Pay Components Considered

HRA is calculated based on which of the following?

Basic Pay

Non-Practicing Allowance (NPA)

Special Pay

Personal Pay

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

🧠 Explanation:

HRA is calculated on Basic Pay and includes NPA, Special Pay, and Personal Pay — as per 7th CPC and DoPT guidelines.

Q38. HRA for Re-employed Pensioners

Consider the following statements about HRA for re-employed pensioners:

HRA will be calculated on max pay of the post if pay + pension exceeds the sanctioned max.

HRA is calculated on pay + pension in all cases.

Ignored pension while fixing re-employment pay is not counted for HRA.

Which are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

🧠 Explanation:

✅ (1): If total pay exceeds post’s max pay, HRA is limited to post’s max.

❌ (2): HRA is not calculated on pension; only on re-employment pay.

✅ (3): Pension ignored for pay fixation is also ignored for HRA.

Q39. Guest House Reimbursement for Transfer

What is the max duration for which Govt. officials can claim rent reimbursement when staying in Guest Houses during transfer/posting?

(a) 3 months

(b) 6 months

(d) 9 months

✅ Correct Answer: (b) 6 months

🧠 Explanation:

As per transfer policies, officials staying in Guest Houses due to transfer can claim HRA/rent reimbursement up to 6 months, subject to conditions.

Q40. Dearness Relief (DR) on Pension

Which of the following statements about DR on pension are correct?

DR is admissible to Central Govt. pensioners drawing pension in rupees, whether in India or abroad.

DR is admissible when a pensioner is appointed as Governor of a State.

DR is not suspended for pensioners elected as MPs or appointed as Speaker/Dy. Speaker/Dy. Chairman.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

🧠 Explanation:

✅ Statement 1: DR is paid in INR regardless of location.

❌ Statement 2: DR is not admissible when pensioner holds a constitutional post like Governor.

✅ Statement 3: DR is not suspended in such cases, per rules.

Q41. Dearness Allowance (DA) Rules

Which of the following statements are correct regarding DA for Govt. servants?

DA is admissible during study leave as per leave salary.

DA during joining time is based on joining time pay.

DA is paid to suspended officials based on pay before suspension.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

🧠 Explanation:

✅ DA is allowed during study leave on the leave salary.

✅ DA is admissible during joining time, based on pay for that period.

❌ DA is not paid during suspension unless reinstated with full pay retrospectively.

Q42. Mileage Allowance – Own Car/Taxi

Where no specific state rates exist, what is the admissible mileage allowance for use of own car/taxi?

(a) ₹12 per km

(b) ₹16 per km

(d) ₹24 per km

✅ Correct Answer: (c) ₹20 per km

🧠 Explanation:

As per 7th CPC travel rules, in absence of prescribed rates, ₹20/km is payable for use of personal vehicle/taxi.

Q43. Competent Authority – Route Other Than Shortest

Who can approve a travel route other than the shortest or cheapest for mileage calculation?

(a) Head of Office

(b) Head of Department

(d) Secretary of the Ministry with advice of FA

✅ Correct Answer: (b) Head of Department

🧠 Explanation:

Head of Department is the competent authority to approve alternative routes if justified.

Q44. Controlled Travelling – Context

The term "controlled travelling" is relevant to:

(a) Permanent Travelling Allowance

(b) Conveyance Allowance

(d) Mileage Allowance

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Permanent Travelling Allowance

🧠 Explanation:

"Controlled travelling" ensures that officers drawing Permanent TA limit their travel to essential journeys, subject to monitoring.

Q45. TA on Retirement – Claim Deadline

What is the time limit for submitting Travelling Allowance claim after retirement journey?

(a) 60 days

(b) 90 days

(d) 240 days

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 180 days

🧠 Explanation:

As per DoPT rules, retired officials must submit TA claims within 180 days from completion of journey.

Q46. Commutation of Pension – Calculation

A Government servant retired before superannuation and opted for 40% commutation of his monthly pension. Details:

Monthly Pension = ₹35,600

Age next birthday = 60 years

Commutation Factor = 8.287

Commutation opted = 40%

What is the correct lump sum amount payable as commuted pension?

(a) ₹1,18,007

(b) ₹14,16,083

(d) ₹4,27,200

✅ Correct Answer: (c) ₹2,95,018

🧠 Explanation:

Commutation Amount

600

8.287

240

8.287

₹

018

(

approx.

)

Commutation Amount=35,600×40%×8.287×12=14,240×8.287×12=₹2,95,018 (approx.)

Q47. Recovery Not Permitted from Dearness Relief

Which of the following dues cannot be recovered from the Dearness Relief (DR) of a pensioner?

Balance of House Building Advance

Arrears of Licence Fee

Overpayment of Pay and Allowances

Arrears of Income Tax

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

🧠 Explanation:

DR is not subject to recovery for loans or overpayments (like HBA or pay).

✅ Only licence fee can be recovered under DR, with prior consent.

Q48. Withholding Voluntary Retirement

Under which conditions can the appointing authority withhold permission to retire voluntarily after 20 years of service?

If the Government servant is under suspension

If a charge sheet has been issued and disciplinary proceedings are pending

If judicial proceedings are pending on charges amounting to grave misconduct

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

🧠 Explanation:

As per CCS (Pension) Rules, voluntary retirement can be withheld in all listed cases:

Suspension

Departmental proceedings

Judicial proceedings for grave misconduct

Q49. Service Verification – To Avoid Retiral Delays

What is the recommended interval for service verification to avoid delay in retirement benefits?

(a) Quarterly

(b) Half-yearly

(d) Biennial

✅ Correct Answer: (c) Annual service verification

🧠 Explanation:

DoPT recommends annual verification of service records to ensure timely pension processing and avoid delays due to missing records.

Q50. Emoluments under CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021

Which of the following form part of 'emoluments' for pension under CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021?

Pay drawn on deputation to a State Government

Pay drawn on foreign service

Pay drawn on deputation to an ex-cadre post in another Govt. Department

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

🧠 Explanation:

All three scenarios involve regular pay drawn in official capacity, and thus count as emoluments for pension calculation.

Q51. Minimum Family Pension Amount

What is the minimum family pension admissible to the family of a deceased Government servant?

(a) ₹3,500 + DR

(b) ₹7,000 + DR

(d) ₹9,500 + DR

✅ Correct Answer: (c) ₹9,000 + DR

🧠 Explanation:

As per CCS (Pension) Rules, minimum family pension is ₹9,000/month, with Dearness Relief (DR) as applicable.

Q52. Eligibility for Dearness Relief on Pension

To which of the following categories is DR on pension payable?

Family pensioners

Compassionate allowance recipients

Service pensioners

Re-employed pensioners (ex-Group A before reemployment)

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

🧠 Explanation:

DR is payable to all these categories (subject to conditions), including even compassionate allowance recipients.

Q53. Ignorable Pension for Pay Fixation

What is the ignorable amount of pension for pay fixation in a re-employed post?

(a) ₹4,000

(b) ₹7,000

(d) ₹15,000

✅ Correct Answer: (d) ₹15,000

🧠 Explanation:

As per revised DoPT guidelines, ₹15,000 of pension is ignored for pay fixation in re-employment cases.

Q54. List of Retiring Employees – Timeline

When must Heads of Department prepare the list of employees retiring in the future, per CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021?

(a) 6 months in advance

(b) 12 months in advance

(d) 18 months in advance

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 18 months

🧠 Explanation:

HODs must prepare a monthly list of employees who will retire in the next 18 months, to ensure timely pension processing.

Q55. Submission of Pension Forms – Deadline

As per CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021, how many months before retirement must a Government servant submit pension-related forms to the Head of Office?

(a) 3 months

(b) 5 months

(d) 8 months

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 6 months

🧠 Explanation:

To ensure timely payment of retirement benefits, forms must be submitted 6 months prior to retirement.

Q56. Family Details Form

On joining Government service, a Government servant must submit family details to the Head of Office in:

(a) Form 2

(b) Form 4

(d) Form 7

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Form 2

🧠 Explanation:

Per CCS (Pension) Rules, family details (for family pension etc.) are submitted using Form 2.

Q57. Death Gratuity Based on Service Duration

Death gratuity equivalent to 12 times of emoluments is payable if a Government servant dies after completing:

(a) 1 year or more but less than 5 years

(b) 5 years or more but less than 11 years

(d) 20 years or more

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 20 years or more

🧠 Explanation:

As per CCS (Pension) Rules, death gratuity =

12x emoluments only if service is 20 years or more

Lesser multiples for shorter service durations

Q58. Family Pension Rules – Correct Statements

Consider the following statements:

If a Government servant dies after 1 year of continuous service, the family is entitled to family pension.

Family pension is capped at ₹1.25 lakh per month for 10 years if the servant dies in service.

A family pensioner aged 84 years gets an additional 30% of basic pension.

Which statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

🧠 Explanation:

✅ (1): Yes, family pension is granted after 1 year of continuous service.

✅ (2): ₹1.25 lakh/month cap for family pension is correct for initial 10 years.

❌ (3): Additional pension starts at 80 years (20%), then +10% per 5 years → At 84 years, it's still 20%, not 30%.

Q59. Pension/Gratuity Withholding – Grounds

Pension/gratuity may be withheld/withdrawn if a pensioner is found guilty of:

Corrupt practices during service

Misconduct related to official duty

Any misconduct, even if no loss to Govt.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

🧠 Explanation:

Under CCS (Pension) Rules, pension/gratuity may be withheld for any serious misconduct, whether it involved loss or not.

Q60. Authority to Withhold Pension

Who can withhold pension of a person retired from a post where the appointing authority was subordinate to the President?

(a) The President

(b) UPSC

(d) Head of Department

✅ Correct Answer: (a) The President

🧠 Explanation:

Only the President has authority to sanction pension withholding for Central Govt. employees, regardless of appointing authority’s rank.

Q61. Forfeiture of Past Service

Which of the following situations shall lead to forfeiture of past service of a Government servant?

Dismissal from service

Resignation (not on technical grounds)

Removal from a post

Absorption in a State Govt.-owned Corporation

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

🧠 Explanation:

All four conditions result in forfeiture of past qualifying service as per CCS (Pension) Rules.

Q62. Qualifying Service – What Counts

Which of the following counts as qualifying service under CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021?

Leave with pay (leave salary payable)

Extraordinary leave (EOL) on medical certificate

Past service after dismissal, reinstated and regularized as leave

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

🧠 Explanation:

All three are admissible as qualifying service under current pension rules if proper approvals and certifications exist.

Q63. Penal Interest for Delayed Payment

CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021 provide for penal interest (at GPF rates) for delayed payment of:

Pension

Gratuity

Leave Encashment

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

🧠 Explanation:

Only pension and gratuity attract penal interest if delayed. Leave encashment is not included in this clause.

Q64. Retirement Gratuity Quantum

What is the admissible retirement gratuity for a Government servant retiring with 35 years of qualifying service?

(a) 16½ times of emoluments

(b) 10 times of emoluments

(d) 35 times of emoluments

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 16½ times of emoluments

🧠 Explanation:

As per pension rules, the max gratuity is capped at 16.5 times of emoluments, subject to monetary ceiling.

Q65. Restoration of Commuted Pension

If pension is commuted at the time of retirement, after how many years is the commuted portion restored?

(a) 10 years

(b) 12 years

(d) 20 years

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 15 years

🧠 Explanation:

As per current rules, the commuted portion of pension is restored after 15 years from the date of retirement.

Q66. Rule Violated in Anti-National Demonstration

Which CCS (Conduct) Rule, 1964 is violated if a Government servant joins a demonstration prejudicial to the sovereignty and integrity of India?

(a) Rule 3-C(1)

(b) Rule 5

(d) Rule 4

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Rule 3-C(1)

🧠 Explanation:

Rule 3-C(1) prohibits Government servants from participating in activities that are prejudicial to India’s sovereignty, integrity, or security.

Q67. Political Activity Violations

Which of the following actions violate CCS (Conduct) Rules on political neutrality?

Canvassing for a candidate while on study leave

Displaying electoral symbol at residence

Attending political meeting organized by RWA in community hall

Proposing a candidate’s name in election with intimation to authority

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

🧠 Explanation:

All listed actions violate political neutrality rules under CCS (Conduct) Rules, including indirect or symbolic participation.

Q68. Time Limit for Property Transaction Permission

What is the time-limit after which permission for property transaction by a Government servant can be assumed granted, if Competent Authority doesn't respond?

(a) 45 days

(b) 30 days

(d) No limit

✅ Correct Answer: (b) 30 days

🧠 Explanation:

As per Rule 18(4) of CCS (Conduct) Rules, if no reply is received within 30 days, permission is deemed granted.

Q69. Incorrect Statement – Conduct Rules

Which of the following statements is NOT correct as per CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964?

(a) Govt. servants cannot criticize Govt. policy, even in judicial enquiries

(b) Govt. servants can freely express views before Administrative Reforms Commission

(d) No Govt. servant can give evidence in enquiries without prior sanction of Govt.

✅ Correct Answer: (a)

🧠 Explanation:

Govt. servants can give truthful evidence in judicial proceedings. Criticism restrictions do not apply in courts unless motivated or malicious.

Q70. Employees Not Covered Under CCS (Conduct) Rules

Which category is NOT governed by CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964?

(a) Defence civilians paid from Defence Budget

(b) All India Services officers in Union Territories

(d) Employees of non-statutory departmental canteens

✅ Correct Answer: (c) Personal staff of Ministers

🧠 Explanation:

Ministerial personal staff (tenure-bound) are excluded from CCS Conduct Rules. Others, including AIS officers in UTs and canteen employees, are covered.

Q71. Gift Limit for Group-B Govt. Servants

What is the monetary limit for Group-B Government servants to accept gifts without prior government sanction (from non-relatives/personal friends)?

(a) ₹5,000

(b) ₹10,000

(d) ₹20,000

✅ Correct Answer: (b) ₹10,000

🧠 Explanation:

As per Rule 13 of CCS (Conduct) Rules, the gift acceptance limit for Group B employees is ₹10,000 from people other than near relatives or personal friends.

Q72. Employment, Organization, and Legal Role

Which statements are correct under CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964?

A Govt. servant cannot enroll as an advocate.

Part-time employment may be allowed after office hours, in rare cases.

Govt. servants can join socio-religious organizations for charitable work without prior sanction if not violating conduct rules.

Govt. servants must not negotiate for commercial employment without prior approval.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

🧠 Explanation:

❌ (1) is incorrect: A Government servant may enroll as an advocate after retirement, but not while in service.

✅ (2), (3), and (4) are valid per CCS Conduct Rules.

Q73. Rules About Loans, Shares, and Friends

Which of the following statements are NOT in conformity with CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964?

Govt. servants may buy shares from a Director’s quota.

Govt. servants can operate a credit account with a bonafide tradesman.

Govt. servants may take a temporary interest-free loan from a personal friend.

The term "small amount" from a personal friend is defined as not exceeding 10× monthly emoluments.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1 and 4 only

🧠 Explanation:

❌ (1) Not permissible – Buying shares from Director's quota is not allowed.

✅ (2) Allowed if genuine.

✅ (3) Allowed with conditions (interest-free, casual, small amount).

❌ (4) No such formal definition of “small amount” in the rules (10× emoluments is NOT mentioned).

Q74. Asset Disclosure on First Appointment

Which items must be included in the return of assets and liabilities submitted by a Govt. servant upon first appointment?

Movable property inherited by the Govt. servant

Debts and other liabilities incurred indirectly

Immovable property in the name of the spouse

Movable property worth less than ₹10,000 each

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

🧠 Explanation:

Movable and immovable properties (even if inherited or in spouse's name) must be declared.

But movable property under ₹10,000 need not be declared.

Hence, ❌ option 4.

Q75. What is Considered Movable Property?

According to CCS (Conduct) Rules, which of the following are included in 'movable property'?

Insurance policies with annual premium > 2 months' basic pay

All unsecured loans taken

Any owned means of conveyance

Refrigerator

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

🧠 Explanation:

All four are considered movable assets under Rule 18:

Vehicles, loans, appliances like refrigerator, and high-value insurance policies.

Q76. CCS (CCA) Rules – Exempted Categories

To whom do CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 NOT apply?

Civilian staff in Defence Services

Police officers (up to Inspector rank) in Delhi Special Police Establishment

Members of All India Services (AIS)

President's Estate Office staff

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

🧠 Explanation:

CCS (CCA) Rules apply to civilian defence employees ✅

But AIS members, DSP officers, and some staff under President's secretariat are governed by separate rules ❌

Q77. Suspension Rules – Incorrect Statement

Which of the following is NOT correct under CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 regarding suspension?

(a) Deemed suspension applies if detained for 24 hours

(b) Deemed suspension applies only after 72 hours of custody

(d) Suspension can be ordered by Appointing Authority or its superior

✅ Correct Answer: (b) ❌

🧠 Explanation:

Rule 10 says deemed suspension applies after 48 hours of detention – not 72.

All other statements are true.

Q78. Incorrect Statement Under CCS (CCA) Rules

Which of the following is NOT correct as per CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965?

(a) A Government servant directly appointed to a higher post may be reduced to a post never held before as punishment.

(b) The entire loss to the Government can be recovered from the delinquent employee — no limit on amount or time.

(d) A warning does not bar promotion of a Government servant.

✅ Correct Answer: (a)

🧠 Explanation:

❌ (a): As per CCS (CCA) Rules, reduction in rank can only be to a post actually held in the past, not one never held.

✅ (b), (c), and (d) are correct.

Q79. Action If Govt. Servant Dies While Under Suspension

What should be done under CCS (CCA) Rules when a Govt. servant dies during suspension while facing disciplinary proceedings?

(a) Continue inquiry ex-parte and decide based on Inquiry Officer's report

(b) Obtain President’s order to continue/terminate proceedings

(d) Treat suspension period as duty and pay full salary to family

✅ Correct Answer: (d)

🧠 Explanation:

As per government instructions, if a Govt. servant dies during suspension, proceedings abate, and suspension is treated as duty, entitling full pay and allowances to the family.

Q80. Powers of Authorities Under CCS (CCA) Rules

Which of the following statements are correct?

President or any empowered authority may initiate disciplinary proceedings against a Govt. servant.

Authority competent to impose minor penalty can also initiate major penalty proceedings.

Such an authority (from 2) may impose minor penalty if proceedings justify it.

President may direct any authority to institute disciplinary proceedings.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

🧠 Explanation:

All statements are true.

Minor penalty authorities can initiate major proceedings and impose lesser penalties.

President has overriding disciplinary powers.

Q81. Incorrect Statements Under CCS (CCA) Rules

Which of the following statements are NOT correct under the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965?

In a major penalty case, the charged officer may examine himself as a witness.

Presenting Officer and Defence Assistant do not participate in general examination by Inquiry Officer.

Inquiry may be skipped, and penalty imposed based on defense statement alone.

A suspended Government servant cannot act as Defence Counsel.

Choose the incorrect ones:

(a) 3 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

🧠 Explanation:

✅ Statement 1 is correct – Charged officer may examine himself as a witness.

❌ Statement 2 is incorrect – Presenting Officer and Defence Assistant can participate in proceedings.

❌ Statement 3 is incorrect – Formal inquiry is mandatory for major penalty unless waived under specific rule.

❌ Statement 4 is incorrect – A suspended Govt. servant can act as Defence Assistant with permission.

Q82. Disciplinary Procedure – Incorrect Statement

Which one of the following is NOT correct as per CCS (CCA) Rules?

(a) CVC’s second stage advice may be shared with charged officer along with Inquiry Report.

(b) Dismissal with retrospective effect from date of suspension is permissible.

(d) Past bad record can be considered for penalty even if not mentioned in charge sheet.

✅ Correct Answer: (d)

🧠 Explanation:

❌ (d) is incorrect – Past record cannot be used to decide penalty unless it is part of the charge.

✅ (a), (b), and (c) are correct practices under the rules.

Q83. Incorrect Statements Under CCS (CCA) Rules

Which of the following statements are NOT correct?

Disciplinary action may be taken jointly against Govt. servants complaining against each other.

If inquiry is impractical, the Disciplinary Authority may proceed with penalty after giving chance to respond.

No appeal lies against interlocutory orders.

Appeal against promotion supersession is outside CCS (CCA) Rules.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 4 only

🧠 Explanation:

❌ Statement 1: Common proceedings are allowed only for jointly involved persons, not just complainants.

✅ Statement 2: Rule 19(ii) allows this.

✅ Statement 3: Interlocutory orders are not appealable.

❌ Statement 4: Promotion supersession appeals are covered under service rules.

Q84. Appeal, Suspension, and President's Revisory Power

Which of the following statements under CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 are correct?

A higher authority that ordered suspension cannot act as the Appellate Authority.

Appeal must be filed within 45 days from the date of receiving the impugned order.

The President can revise any order at any time, either suo motu or otherwise.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

🧠 Explanation:

❌ (1): No such absolute bar under the rules. A higher authority may act as Appellate Authority unless otherwise disqualified.

✅ (2): Time limit for appeal is 45 days.

✅ (3): President can revise any disciplinary order anytime (Rule 29).

Q85. Minor vs Major Penalty – Incorrect Statement

Which one of the following statements under CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 is NOT correct?

(a) Withholding of increments is a minor penalty.

(b) Withholding of promotion is not a major penalty.

(d) Withholding of increment for failure to pass a departmental exam is a minor penalty.

✅ Correct Answer: (b) ❌

🧠 Explanation:

✅ (a): Minor penalty

❌ (b): Withholding of promotion is a major penalty

✅ (c): Correct – removal doesn’t necessarily disqualify for future Govt. service

✅ (d): Covered under minor penalties

Q86. Order of Preference – Leave Salary (Death Case)

In case of death of a Government servant, what is the correct order of preference for payment of cash equivalent of leave salary among these family members?

Father

Mother

Eldest son

Eldest unmarried daughter

Eldest widowed daughter

Select the correct sequence:

(a) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2

(b) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2

🧠 Explanation:

Priority is given in this order:

Spouse

Children (eldest son/daughters)

Then parents (father/mother)

→ Hence, eldest son, unmarried/widowed daughters, then father and mother.

Q87. Leave Rules – Incorrect Statements

Which of the following statements under CCS (Leave) Rules, 1972 are NOT correct?

Leave preparatory to retirement may include extraordinary leave.

Shortfall in earned leave for encashment can be met by converting half pay leave.

Maximum encashment of leave (earned + half pay) is 300 days.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

🧠 Explanation:

❌ (1): Leave preparatory to retirement cannot include extraordinary leave.

❌ (2): HPL cannot be commuted to make up EL shortfall for encashment.

✅ (3): Total encashment capped at 300 days.

Q88. Half Pay Leave (HPL) – CCS (Leave) Rules, 1972

Which of the following statements about HPL are correct?

HPL shall be granted on medical certificate only.

While affording credit of HPL, fraction of a day shall be ignored.

HPL shall be credited at the rate of 5/3 days for each completed calendar month of service in the half-year of appointment.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

🧠 Explanation:

❌ Statement 1: HPL can also be granted without medical certificate under specific conditions (e.g., study leave).

✅ Statement 2: True — fractional days are ignored.

✅ Statement 3: Correct as per Rule 29.

Q89. Denial of Leave – Timeframe

Under CCS (Leave) Rules, 1972, leave should not ordinarily be denied during:

(a) First 5 years of service

(b) Entire service

(d) Last 15 years of service

✅ Correct Answer: (d) Last 15 years of service

🧠 Explanation:

Government policy encourages granting leave in the last 15 years of service for health/family reasons, unless exceptional circumstances arise.

Q90. Commuted Leave, Maternity, Adoption – What’s Correct?

Female employees can get up to 60 days of commuted leave without medical certificate on adopting a child (if fewer than 2 surviving children).

No medical certificate is required for commuted leave after maternity leave.

Leave Not Due is debited against earned or half-pay leave to be earned in future.

Child adoption leave is debited against Earned Leave account.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

🧠 Explanation:

✅ Statement 1 & 2 are correct.

❌ Statement 3: Leave Not Due is debited only against Half Pay Leave, not Earned Leave.

❌ Statement 4: Child adoption leave is not debited from EL; it’s a separate leave type.

Q91. Hindi Training Target – Region ‘A’

What is the target percentage for imparting in-service Hindi training (in Hindi medium) for Central Govt. employees in Region ‘A’?

(a) 80%

(b) 75%

(d) 60%

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 80%

🧠 Explanation:

As per Hindi policy guidelines, 80% of Central Govt. employees in Region ‘A’ must receive in-service training in Hindi medium.

Q92. Hindi Workshops – Which Are Not Correct?

Workshop duration must be at least 1 working day.

At least 50% of time must be for practical Hindi work.

Post-training work assessment in Hindi must be conducted.

Every employee should attend once in 4 years.

Which statements are NOT correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 4 only

🧠 Explanation:

✅ Statements 1–3 are correct as per official Hindi training guidelines.

❌ Statement 4: Training should be more frequent (e.g., once every 2 years, not 4).

Q93. Official Language Magazines – What’s True?

Which of the following statements about Official Language magazines is/are correct?

Rajbhasha Bharati is the half-yearly magazine of the Department of Official Language.

₹3,000 honorarium is given for regular articles published in Rajbhasha Bharati.

Articles in in-house magazines should preferably help promote Hindi use in offices.

Articles about literature in other Indian languages should also be included.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

🧠 Explanation:

All four statements reflect the official policy guidelines about Rajbhasha Bharati and in-house magazines. Inclusion of other Indian language literature (statement 4) is encouraged to promote linguistic harmony.

Q94. Rajbhasha Gaurav Puraskar – First Prize

What is the first prize under the Rajbhasha Gaurav Puraskar scheme for Central Government employees (including retirees) for writing an original Hindi book?

(a) ₹1,00,000 with certificate and memento

(b) ₹1,00,000 only

(d) ₹2,00,000 with certificate and memento

✅ Correct Answer: (d) ₹2,00,000 with certificate and memento

🧠 Explanation:

The Rajbhasha Gaurav Puraskar scheme gives this award to encourage Hindi authorship among Govt. servants and retired employees.

Q95. 12-Pras Strategy – What’s Not One of Them?

Which one of the following is NOT one of the 12 'Pras' (factors) in the Department of Official Language strategy?

(a) Prerana (Inspiration)

(b) Praman (Proof)

(d) Prize (Rewards)

✅ Correct Answer: (b) Praman (Proof)

🧠 Explanation:

The “12-Pras” strategy includes Prerna, Prachar, Prashikshan, Puraskar, etc. but Praman is not one of them.

Q96. Handing/Taking Over Govt. Stores – Which Are Correct?

Outgoing officer must check cash/stores jointly with relieving officer, as per rules.

Responsibility for verifying balances lies equally with both officers.

Handing over is mandatory only if absence exceeds 7 days.

Cashbook/imprest account must be closed on date of handover, with signatures of both officers.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only

🧠 Explanation:

✅ Statements 1, 2, and 4 are standard procedures in Govt. service.

❌ Statement 3 is incorrect: Handover may be necessary regardless of duration, depending on nature of custody.

Q97. Financial Orders Interpretation – First Point of Contact

Questions involving interpretation of Govt. of India orders related to finance/accounts should first be referred to which authority by local units?

(a) Command Headquarters

(b) Local Audit Officer

(d) Director, Audit Defence Services

✅ Correct Answer: (c) Principal Controller/Controller of Defence Accounts

🧠 Explanation:

The PCDA/CDA is the designated authority for clarification on financial/accounting issues as per Defence Financial Regulations.

Q98. Audit Objection – Where to Represent?

A Naval establishment finds the demand from the PCDA (Navy) for certain audit requirements unnecessary. Whom should it approach to represent its case?

(a) Controller General of Defence Accounts

(b) IHQ of MoD (Navy)

(d) Financial Advisor Defence Services

✅ Correct Answer: (c) FOC-in-C concerned

🧠 Explanation:

As per Defence Audit procedures, when there’s a disagreement between a unit and audit, the matter should be taken up with the Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief (FOC-in-C) for resolution through the chain of command.

Q99. Communication of Sanctions – Which Are Correct?

Sanctions from the Chief of Army Staff are communicated directly to PCDA/CDA.

Sanctions of the Government of India are directly communicated by the Financial Advisor (Defence Services) to Controllers.

Letters authorizing payments must be signed in ink when sent to the PCsDA/CsDA who act on them.

Which statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 2 and 3 only

🧠 Explanation:

❌ Statement 1: Sanctions of COAS usually go through service HQ or MoD — not direct to CDA.

✅ Statement 2: Government sanctions are routed via FA (Defence Services).

✅ Statement 3: As per audit rules, letters authorizing payments must be physically signed, not just scanned or unsigned.

Q100. Lapse of Sanctions – Identify Incorrect Statements

A sanction not acted upon for 1 year generally lapses unless renewed.

If part payment is made within 12 months, balance can be paid without fresh sanction (if budget exists).

In case of local store purchase, if tenders are accepted within a year, it is deemed acted upon — even if no payment was made.

For approved MES work, fresh sanction is needed if the work is not started within 3 years of administrative approval.

Which statements are NOT correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 3 only

🧠 Explanation:

✅ Statement 1: True as per rules — sanctions lapse if not acted upon within 12 months.

✅ Statement 2: If part payment is made in time, balance can be paid without fresh sanction.

❌ Statement 3: Tender acceptance alone does not mean sanction was acted upon unless it leads to payment action.

✅ Statement 4: MES rules allow 3 years to commence the work — after which, fresh sanction is needed.

Q101. Re-appropriation of Funds – What’s Correct?

Which of the following statements about re-appropriation under Government financial rules are correct?

Service Headquarters have full powers for re-appropriation between sub-heads under a minor head in each demand.

Excess receipts and recoveries cannot be used to cover expenditure beyond sanctioned grant.

No re-appropriation is allowed between “charged” and “voted” items.

Re-appropriation for new activities is allowed by Service HQ with IFA/Principal IFA concurrence.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

🧠 Explanation:

❌ (1) is not entirely correct — full powers are subject to delegated authority and Ministry of Finance rules.

✅ (2) Excess recoveries go to Consolidated Fund and can’t be used for extra spending.

✅ (3) “Charged” and “voted” expenditures are distinct – no re-appropriation between them.

✅ (4) Re-appropriation for new heads can be made with IFA concurrence.

Q102. Procurement Preference – Correct Order

Choose the correct order of preference for defence procurement from abroad:

Made in India using imported materials (if quality is good)

Foreign-made, needs special import

Made in India using Indian raw materials (if quality is good)

Foreign-made but held in stock in India (and of good type/quality)

Choose the correct sequence:

(a) 2, 1, 4, 3

(b) 2, 4, 1, 3

(d) 3, 4, 1, 2

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 3, 4, 1, 2

🧠 Explanation:

Preference is for:

🇮🇳 Indigenous production with local materials

🇮🇳 Indigenous using imported materials

🇮🇳 Foreign stock already available in India

🌐 Fresh imports (last resort)

So correct sequence is: 3 → 4 → 1 → 2

Q103. Purchase Rules – What’s Not Correct?

Which of these statements are NOT correct regarding classification of articles during purchase?

Articles of different sizes/specifications are different articles if they serve different purposes.

Articles of different sizes/specifications are similar even if they serve different purposes.

Different makes serving same purpose are treated as dissimilar articles.

Different makes/patterns serving same purpose should be treated as similar.

Choose the NOT correct ones:

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 2 and 3 only

🧠 Explanation:

✅ Statement 1 is correct

❌ Statement 2 is wrong — if they serve different purposes, they are not similar.

❌ Statement 3 is wrong — if purpose is same, they are similar regardless of make.

✅ Statement 4 is correct.

Q104. Loss of Stores by Civilian Staff – What’s True?

Which statements are correct regarding loss of stores due to theft/fraud/negligence by civilian Government staff?

Financial authority may compel recovery from employee.

Disciplinary action can be initiated under CCS (CCA) Rules.

Regularization authority is determined based on net loss (after recovery).

Legal proceedings may be sanctioned by competent authority.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

🧠 Explanation:

❌ (1): Recovery can’t be compelled without inquiry or admission.

✅ (2): Disciplinary action is valid under CCS (CCA) Rules.

✅ (3): Net loss after recovery is the basis for regularization.

✅ (4): Legal action can be initiated depending on case severity.

Q105. Loss of Immovable Property – What’s Correct?

Consider the following statements:

For insured buildings, the value of loss or damage is the full amount, regardless of the insurance claim received.

For damage caused by enemy action inside active operations area, no loss statement or CFA sanction is required.

For damage outside active operations area, loss statement must be prepared and sanctioned by appropriate CFA.

For losses outside active area, a board is convened under orders of Station Commander/Commander.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

🧠 Explanation:

✅ Statement 1: Loss is accounted for fully — even if insurance reimbursement is partial.

❌ Statement 2: Inside operational area, statements are still needed depending on procedures.

✅ Statement 3: Yes — loss statements are mandatory outside operational areas.

✅ Statement 4: Correct — local commander convenes Board of Officers to assess loss.

Q106. Overpayments – Recovery Rules

Consider the following statements:

If overpayment is detected within 12 months, individual must be informed of the nature and method of recovery.

Disagreements between admin authorities and PCDA/CDA on recovery must be reported to CGDA.

If overpayment is not challenged within 12 months, the person is to be asked (via CFA) to show cause before recovery.

In such late cases (beyond 12 months), the CFA can remit the overpayment, recording reasons.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

🧠 Explanation:

All four statements correctly reflect procedures under Defence financial rules regarding recovery of overpayments. Remission, show-cause notice, and escalation to CGDA are all part of due process.

✅ Q107. Consider the following statements regarding refund of security deposits:

The percentage deductions from bills held as security in connection with contracts to execute work should not be refunded till the final bill has been prepared and passed.

If the security deposit or any other sums due to the contractor are attached by any court, the executive officer may pay the total amount in the court even if pending claims of the Government are there against the contractor.

If on receipt of an order of attachment, it is felt by an executive officer that non-payment of money due to a contractor from the Government would adversely affect the continuance of services under the contract, he may request the court concerned to modify its order so that he could continue payments to the contractor and at the same time retain or pay into court a percentage of future sums accruing up to the limit of the attachment.

No security should be refunded till the particulars of the claims have been verified with the receipt entries in the cash book or security register and the receipt provided on the reverse of the No Demand Certificate duly completed in all respects is signed by the depositor.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

🧾 Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct — Security held should not be refunded until the final bill is passed.

Statement 2 is incorrect — Government claims must be settled before security is paid even under court orders.

Statement 3 is correct — Executive officer may appeal for modification if non-payment hampers operations.

Statement 4 is correct — No refund unless full verification is done and No Demand Certificate is signed.

✅ Q108. What is the prescribed validity of Bid Security?

(a) 30 days beyond the final bid validity period

(b) 45 days beyond the final bid validity period

(d) 45 days beyond the last date of receipt of tenders

✅ Correct Answer: (b) 45 days beyond the final bid validity period

🧾 Explanation:

As per procurement rules, Bid Security (also called Earnest Money Deposit) must remain valid for 45 days beyond the bid validity period to ensure that bidders do not withdraw and are available for negotiation if required.

✅ Q109. Consider the following statements regarding modification of contracts:

Acceptance of supplies in excess of the quantity ordered will not be held to be a modification in the conditions of a contract, provided the excess supplied quantity does not exceed 5% of the quantity ordered, even if it is not specifically provided for in the contract.

Acceptance of supplies in excess of the quantity ordered will not be held to be a modification in the conditions of a contract provided the excess supply does not exceed 5% of the original value of the contract.

For acceptance of supplies in excess of 5% of the value of the original contract, a competent financial authority will be determined by the value of the original order plus the excess/short value.

For acceptance of supplies in excess up to 10% of the value of the original contract, the competent financial authority which sanctioned the original contract will continue to be the CFA irrespective of the enhanced value of the contract.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

🧾 Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect — Accepting excess quantity (even up to 5%) without contract provision can amount to modification.

✅ Statement 2 is correct — Value-based margin is key for determining whether it's a modification.

✅ Statement 3 is correct — CFA level is decided based on combined value of original + excess.

Statement 4 is incorrect — CFA may change if total value exceeds earlier sanction limit.

✅ Q110. In which of the following situations, honorarium is not payable to a Government servant?

For contribution of articles to a Government publication as a part of the normal duties and responsibilities attached to his post.

When he performs the duties of another sanctioned post in addition to his own duties.

When he is appointed to act as an arbitrator in a dispute between a private party and a Department other than the one in which he is working.

Temporary increase in work due to the holding of special conferences under the auspices of a department.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only

🧾 Explanation:

❌ Statement 3: In the case of arbitration involving a private party and a department other than his own, honorarium may be payable.

✅ Statements 1, 2, and 4 are part of regular duties or departmental initiatives, for which honorarium is not payable.

✅ Q111. Consider the following statements regarding determination of Payment Issue Rates of imported/indigenous Naval Stores:

The Priced Vocabulary (PV) rates of indigenous stores should be fixed/revised when the quantity purchased under direct/local purchase powers is intended to replenish stock or to meet payment issue requirements, if any.

The PV rates should be fixed/revised when the quantity purchased under direct/local purchase is intended to meet immediate and operational requirements of Ships/Establishments.

Payment Issue Rates in respect of Naval stores are worked out by levying 5% departmental charges on PV rates.

Charges @10% are levied over and above the Payment Issue Rates so worked out for issues to non-entitled personnel.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

🧾 Explanation:

❌ Statement 1 is not entirely correct — fixing PV rates is not merely for replenishment or payment issue stock.

✅ Statement 2 relates to urgent operational needs — PV revision is allowed.

✅ Statements 3 & 4: 5% dept. charges are added to PV; and 10% surcharge is applied for non-entitled personnel.

✅ Q112. An Audit office discovers that due to wrong interpretation of financial rules, overpayments have been made for a considerable time. What is the period of such bills for which the Audit office can undertake a re-audit on its own initiative?

(a) Bills paid not more than 12 months ago

(b) Bills paid not more than 6 months ago

(d) All the bills paid previously irrespective of their vintage

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Bills paid not more than 12 months ago

🧾 Explanation:

As per Government audit guidelines, re-audit on the audit office's own initiative is allowed for bills paid within the last 12 months. Beyond that, prior approval of the competent authority is needed.

✅ Q113. Consider the following statements regarding Special Grant placed at the disposal of Ministry of Defence:

Annual Ceiling limits under the above Grant have been fixed for the Chiefs of all the three Services, viz. Army, Navy and Air Force.

Miscellaneous expenditure incurred by the Chief of Army Staff while on tour for which no specific provision exists in the regulations should not exceed 10% of the amount allocated to him.

Donations when visiting Training Establishments are made by the Chief of the Army Staff out of this Grant.

When donations are made to institutions not connected with Defence Services, a certificate to the effect that the donations were in connection with the Chief’s official visit will be endorsed on the vouchers.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 2 only

✅ Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only

🧾 Explanation:

✅ Statement 1 is correct – There are annual ceilings.

❌ Statement 2 is not correct – No fixed 10% limit; expenditure rules are different.

✅ Statement 3 is correct.

❌ Statement 4 – Such endorsement practice is not mandatory for institutions not related to Defence. Hence, incorrect.

✅ Q114. A person subject to the Army Act, 1950 who is compelled by the exigencies of Army duty to reside within the limits of a municipality or a cantonment is exempted from which of the following kinds of municipality or cantonment taxes?

Taxes on salaries

Taxes on trades

Taxes on professions

Income tax

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

🧾 Explanation:

As per provisions and various judicial pronouncements:

Army personnel compelled to reside in a municipality/cantonment due to service cannot be taxed by the local authority on salary, profession, or trade.

Income tax, however, is levied by the Central Government, not municipalities, and is applicable to all eligible individuals, including Army personnel.

✅ Q115. Charged expenditure means the expenditure charged on the:

(a) Consolidated Fund of India

(b) Public Fund

(d) Capital Account

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Consolidated Fund of India

🧾 Explanation:

Expenditures like the salary of the President, judges of Supreme Court, etc., are charged directly to the Consolidated Fund of India. These are not subject to vote in Parliament, hence called "charged expenditures".

✅ Q116. The scheme allowing Government servants to travel by air to North East Region (NER), Jammu and Kashmir (J & K), Ladakh and Andaman and Nicobar Islands (A & N) has been extended by the Government till:

(a) 25th September, 2024

(b) 31st December, 2024

(d) 25th September, 2023

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 25th September, 2024

🧾 Explanation:

As per the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) notifications, the special LTC scheme to NE, J&K, Ladakh and A&N by air has been extended till 25th September 2024.

✅ Q117. Consider the following statements regarding LTC entitlements:

A Government servant and members of his family may visit different places of their choice during the block of four years.

The children of divorced sisters residing with the Government servant are eligible for LTC facility.

The officers appointed on contract basis for a period of 10 months are entitled to LTC.

The intended place of visit shall be declared by the Government servant in advance to his controlling officer.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 4 only

🧾 Explanation:

✅ Statement 1 is correct – Govt. servants and their families can choose different places within the LTC block.

❌ Statement 2 is incorrect – Divorced sister’s children are not covered unless wholly dependent and residing with the employee, which requires approval.

❌ Statement 3 is incorrect – Officers on contract less than one year are not eligible.

✅ Statement 4 is correct – Declaration of destination to controlling officer is required.

✅ Q118. Consider the following statements in the context of CCS (LTC) Rules, 1988:

Leave Travel Concession (LTC) is available to all Government servants who have completed one year of continuous service on the date of journey.

LTC cannot be availed while on study leave.

LTC cannot be availed during the week-end holidays alone.

Fresh recruits to Central Government are allowed to travel to their home town along with their families on three occasions in a block of four years and to any place in India on the fourth occasion.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

🧾 Explanation:

✅ Statement 1: Correct – One year of continuous service is required.

✅ Statement 2: Correct – LTC is not admissible during study leave.

❌ Statement 3: Incorrect – LTC can be availed if proper leave is sanctioned; even during weekends with sanctioned leave attached.

✅ Statement 4: Correct – Fresh recruits get 4 LTCs in 4 years: 3 to home town and 1 anywhere in India.

✅ Q119. Consider the following statements regarding LTC advance:

The amount of LTC advance in each case will be limited to 90% of the estimated amount which the Government would have to reimburse in respect of cost of journey both ways.

If the period of leave taken by the Government servant exceeds 90 days after the advance had already been drawn for outward and return journey, advance in full has to be refunded to the Government forthwith.

Advances to temporary Government servants are sanctioned subject to production of surety of a permanent Government servant.

LTC claims should invariably be preferred within one month of the completion of the return journey irrespective of the fact whether an advance was drawn or not.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Options:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 only

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

🧾 Explanation:

Statement 1: ✅ Correct – Only 90% of the fare is provided as advance.

Statement 2: ✅ Correct – If leave is extended beyond 90 days, the full amount must be returned.

Statement 3: ✅ Correct – Temporary employees must provide surety of a permanent Government servant.

Statement 4: ❌ Incorrect – While filing LTC claims promptly is advised, it is not an absolute rule ("invariably"); there can be condonations for delays.

✅ Q120. Consider the following provisions regarding booking of Holiday Homes:

Serving Central Government employees can book accommodation 60 days in advance from the check-in date.

There is no provision for refund of booking charges even if the accommodation is not occupied.

Accommodation can be booked for a period not exceeding 5 nights except for Mussoorie and Goa.

As regards booking of Holiday Home by the retired Government servants, the presence of the retired Government servant is necessary at the time of checking in and a photocopy of the Pension Payment Order (PPO) should also be presented at that time.

Retired Central Government employees can book accommodation 45 days in advance from the check-in date.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are not correct?

Options:

(a) 1 and 5 only

(b) 1 only

(d) 5 only

✅ Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 5 only

🧾 Explanation:

Statement 1: ❌ Not correct – Serving employees can book 60 days in advance ✅, but this is not a mistake — So this one appears technically correct unless circular says otherwise.

Statement 5: ❌ Not correct – Retired employees can book only 30 days in advance, not 45.

Statements 2, 3, 4: ✅ Correct – These follow official booking guidelines.

⚠️ Note: Based on latest DoE/Directorate of Estates rules, option (a) is considered correct assuming statement 1 is treated as partially flawed, or in case recent circulars adjusted advance booking timelines.

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