Total 03 Papers

Paper 1 - GS & GK of Constitution of India and Machinery of Government, Practice and Procedures in Parliament and Knowledge of RTI Act, 2005. - 2 Hrs. - 150 Marks - Objective 

Paper 2 - Procedure and Practice in the Govt of India Secretariat and attached offices and General Financial and Service Rules duly taking into account the requirement of relevant categories of services. - 2 Hrs - 150 Marks - Objective

Paper 3 -  Noting and Drafting, Precis Writing - 3 Hrs - 200 Marks - Subjective 

Paper 4 - Evaluation of record of Service - 100 

Category I Section Officers’ Grade of the Central Secretariat Service

Category II Sections Officer Grade of the General Cadre of the Indian Foreign Service, Branch ‘B’

Category III Section Officers’ Grade of the Railway Board Secretariat Service

Category IV Private Secretary Grade of the Central Secretariat Stenographers’ Service

Category V Private Secretary Grade of the Stenographers’ Cadre of the Indian Foreign Service, Branch ‘B’

Category VI Grade ‘A & ‘B’ merged of the Armed Forces Headquarters Stenographers’ Service

Category VII Grade ‘B’ of the Railway Board Secretariat Stenographer’s Service

Category VIII Section Officers’ Grade of the Intelligence Bureau 

Category IX Private Secretary Grade in Employees’ State Insurance Corporation

Category X Section Officers in Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service

Category XI Assistant Director/Section Officers/Manager Gr.I in Employees’ State Insurance Corporation 

1. Which part of the Constitution of India deals with the Government in the States?

(a) Part IV

(b) Part V

(c) Part VI

(d) Part IX✅ Answer: (c) Part VI

🧠 Explanation (in English)

Part VI of the Constitution of India contains provisions related to the Government of the States.

It covers:

The State Executive (Governor, Chief Minister, Council of Ministers)

The State Legislature (Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council)

The High Courts in States

Administrative relations and other state-level governance structures

Part VI spans Articles 152 to 237, and it provides the complete constitutional framework for how State Governments operate.

Part V deals with the Union Government, not the States.

Part IV contains Directive Principles of State Policy.

Part IX deals with Panchayati Raj Institutions.

2. Which of the following is not included in the Right to Freedom?

(a) Protection of life and personal liberty

(b) Protection against arrest and detention

(c) Protection in respect of conviction for offences

(d) Right to assemble peaceably and without arms

✅ Correct Answer: (c) Protection in respect of conviction for offences

🧠 Explanation (in English)

The Right to Freedom is covered under Articles 19 to 22 of the Indian Constitution. It includes:

Article 19 → Six freedoms (speech, assembly, movement, etc.)

Article 20 → Protection in respect of conviction for offences (BUT this article is part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty group, not “Right to Freedom”)

Article 21 → Protection of life and personal liberty

Article 22 → Protection against arrest and detention

However, in Fundamental Rights classification:

Articles 19–22 together are often referred to as the “Right to Freedom.”

Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offences) is technically grouped under the broader security rights but not counted under the six freedoms or the general category of "Right to Freedom" as used in many exam frameworks.

Therefore option (c) is considered not included in the specific segment of freedoms typically asked in competitive exams.

3. What does the Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act, 1996 provide?

(a) Extension of the provisions of the 73rd Amendment to the Scheduled Areas

(b) Establishment of separate Panchayats for Scheduled Tribes

(c) Reservation of all posts in Panchayats for members of Scheduled Tribes

(d) Abolition of traditional tribal councils

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Extension of the provisions of the 73rd Amendment to the Scheduled Areas

🧠 Explanation (in English)

The Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act, 1996 was enacted to ensure that the democratic Panchayati Raj system created by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment is properly applied in Scheduled Areas (tribal-dominated regions).

Key purpose of PESA:

It extends the provisions of Part IX (Panchayats) to Scheduled Areas.

It recognizes traditional tribal self-governance systems.

It gives Gram Sabhas special powers in land, resources, dispute resolution, and local planning.

Options (b), (c), and (d) are not provisions of PESA.

PESA does not abolish tribal councils but integrates them with Panchayat structures.

4. Right to Information is a

(a) Fundamental Right

(b) Legal Right

(c) Human Right

(d) Both (a) and (b)

✅ Correct Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

🧠 Explanation (in English)

#The Right to Information (RTI) is considered a Fundamental Right because it is derived from Article 19(1)(a) — the freedom of speech and expression.

#The Supreme Court has repeatedly held that people cannot express or participate meaningfully in democracy without access to information.

#RTI is also a Legal Right because the Right to Information Act, 2005 provides a statutory mechanism to exercise this right.

#So it exists at two levels:

#Constitutional/Fundamental right → via Article 19(1)(a)

#Statutory/Legal right → via RTI Act, 2005

#Hence the correct answer is Both (a) and (b).

5. The Right to Property in India is

(a) A Fundamental Right

(b) A Constitutional Right

(c) A Legal Right

(d) Neither a Constitutional Right nor a Legal Right

✅ Correct Answer: (c) A Legal Right

🧠 Explanation (in English)

Originally, Right to Property was a Fundamental Right under Article 31.

But the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978:

Deleted Article 31

Introduced Article 300A → “No person shall be deprived of his property except by authority of law.”

So now the Right to Property is:

✔ NOT a Fundamental Right

✔ NOT a Constitutional Right (in the Part III sense)

✔ But a Legal/Statutory Right under Article 300A

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16

🆕 Expected Question (Extra Plot Added)

Q. A new state is formed under the Indian Union. Which Articles should be consulted to understand the constitutional structure, powers, and functioning of its State Government?

(a) Articles 36–51

(b) Articles 124–147

(c) Articles 152–237

(d) Articles 243–243O

✅ Correct Answer: (c) Articles 152–237

🧠 Explanation

Articles 152–237, which fall under Part VI, contain provisions related to State Executive, State Legislature, High Courts, and overall State Government functioning.

DPSPs (Articles 36–51) are general guiding principles, not structural provisions.

Articles 124–147 relate to the Supreme Court.

Articles 243–243O relate to Panchayats and Municipalities, not State Government structure.

Q. Which of the following Fundamental Rights protects a person specifically after being charged with a criminal offence, and is therefore not counted among the freedoms under Article 19?

(a) Right to equality before the law

(b) Protection in respect of conviction for offences

(c) Right to move freely throughout the territory of India

(d) Protection against arrest and detention

✅ Correct Answer: (b) Protection in respect of conviction for offences

🔵 ARTICLE 20 — Protection in respect of conviction for offences

Total Rules: 3

1️⃣ Article 20(1) — Ex-post facto law prohibited

Kisi bhi vyakti ko us act ke liye punish nahi kiya ja sakta jo us waqt offence nahi tha.

Punishment ko peeche se lagu nahi kiya ja sakta.

2️⃣ Article 20(2) — Double jeopardy prohibited

Ek hi offence ke liye do baar trial ya punishment nahi ho sakta.

3️⃣ Article 20(3) — Self-incrimination prohibited

Accused ko apne khilaaf statement dene ke liye majboor nahi kiya ja sakta.

🟢 ARTICLE 21 — Protection of life and personal liberty

No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.

Important Rights under Article 21 (Exam list)

Right to live with dignity

Right to privacy

Right to livelihood

Right to shelter

Right to clean environment

Right to health

Right to legal aid

Right to speedy trial

Right against custodial torture

Right to education (6–14 yrs)

Right to safe drinking water

Right to travel abroad

Right to die with dignity

⚠ Note: Article 21 is shortest in text but biggest in scope.

🔴 ARTICLE 22 — Protection against arrest and detention

Total Clauses: 7

(6 practical rules)

🔴 A) Ordinary Arrest Protections — 22(1) & 22(2)

1️⃣ Article 22(1)

Arrested person has right:

To know the grounds of arrest

To consult a lawyer of his choice

2️⃣ Article 22(2)

Magistrate ke samne 24 hours ke andar produce karna zaroori

Without magistrate order, detention allowed nahi

🔴 B) Preventive Detention Rules — 22(3) to 22(7)

3️⃣ Article 22(3)

22(1) & 22(2) ye protections apply nahi hote:

Enemy aliens

Preventive detention detainees

4️⃣ Article 22(4)

Preventive detention maximum 3 months, unless:

Advisory Board approves longer detention

5️⃣ Article 22(5)

Detenu ka right:

Grounds of detention ko know karna

Representation submit karna

6️⃣ Article 22(6)

State sensitive facts ko withhold kar sakta hai (public interest)

7️⃣ Article 22(7)

Parliament decide kar sakti hai:

Maximum detention period

Conditions for extended detention

Q. A newly formed tribal-majority district is declared a Scheduled Area by the President. Which law must now be applied to ensure that the Gram Sabha receives control over natural resources and local dispute resolution?

(a) Forest Rights Act, 2006

(b) PESA Act, 1996

(c) Tribal Sub-Plan Act

(d) 74th Constitutional Amendment

✅ Correct Answer: (b) PESA Act, 1996

🧠 Explanation

#PESA specifically grants Gram Sabhas in Scheduled Areas the power over:

#Minor forest produce

#Dispute resolution

#Local planning

#Natural resource management

#FRA gives forest rights but not Panchayat governance powers.

#TSP is a budgeting mechanism.

#74th Amendment applies to urban local bodies, not tribal rural areas.

Q. The Gram Sabha of a village in a Scheduled Area rejects a government proposal for land acquisition. Under which legal framework does the Gram Sabha have the authority to do so?

(a) The 73rd Constitutional Amendment alone

(b) The PESA Act, 1996

(c) The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution alone

(d) The Land Acquisition Act, 2013

✅ Correct Answer: (b) The PESA Act, 1996

🧠 Explanation

#PESA Act gives mandatory consultative and approval powers to Gram Sabhas regarding land acquisition in Scheduled Areas.

#73rd Amendment gives structure but not specific tribal powers.

#Fifth Schedule outlines administration of Scheduled Areas, but the operational authority comes from PESA.

#Land Acquisition Act involves consent, but Gram Sabha authority comes only under PESA.

Q. A citizen demands information from a government department, but the department says, “RTI is only a statutory right, not a constitutional right.” Which constitutional provision allows the citizen to challenge this claim?

(a) Article 14 – Equality before law

(b) Article 19(1)(a) – Freedom of speech and expression

(c) Article 32 – Right to constitutional remedies

(d) Article 21 – Protection of life and personal liberty

✅ Correct Answer: (b) Article 19(1)(a)

🧠 Explanation

RTI flows directly from Article 19(1)(a) because free speech requires access to information.

Supreme Court rulings like Raj Narain Case and ADR Case confirm RTI as a Fundamental Right.

Isliye department ka claim incorrect hoga, aur citizen Article 19(1)(a) ka sahara le sakta hai.

Q. The Supreme Court directs that voter has the right to know the criminal records and assets of candidates contesting elections. This right is protected under:

(a) Only the Representation of the People Act, 1951

(b) Right to Information Act, 2005

(c) Article 19(1)(a) as part of the Right to Information

(d) Article 21 – Right to life

✅ Correct Answer: (c) Article 19(1)(a) as part of the Right to Information

🧠 Explanation

Court ne bola ki "Right to Know" = core of Article 19(1)(a).

Election candidate information RTI Act ke through nahi, Fundamental Right ke through protect hota hai.

Ye question examiner ka favourite trap hai:

Students RTI Act ko tick kar dete hain

Par actual base Article 19(1)(a) hai

Q. Which of the following rights CANNOT be meaningfully exercised unless the Right to Information is recognized as a Fundamental Right?

(a) Right to vote

(b) Right to life

(c) Right to equality

(d) Right to form associations

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Right to vote

🧠 Detailed Explanation (Why examiner will ask this & why this is the right answer)

1️⃣ Why this is a deep question?

Examiner wants to test:

Do you understand why RTI is treated as a Fundamental Right?

Can you connect RTI → democracy → informed choices → voting?

Do you know Supreme Court rulings (ADR case, PUCL case) linking voting rights with RTI?

This is a “core reasoning” question — NOT factual.

2️⃣ Why the answer is NOT (b), (c), or (d)?

(b) Right to life – Article 21

The Right to Life can be exercised even without RTI.

RTI may help (e.g., asking for medical data) but it is not essential for exercising the right.

(c) Right to equality – Article 14

Equality before law is independent of RTI.

RTI supports transparency, but equality does not depend on RTI.

(d) Right to form associations – Article 19(1)(c)

You can form associations even without RTI.

RTI doesn’t determine your ability to organize.

3️⃣ Why (a) Right to vote is the ONLY correct answer?

Supreme Court has ruled:

A voter must have the “Right to Know” about candidates

(criminal records, assets, education, corruption cases)

Without information → voting becomes meaningless

RTI empowers voters to make an informed choice,

therefore voting rights DEPEND on RTI.

This is why:

✔ Right to Know = Part of Article 19(1)(a)

✔ Right to Vote = Effective only when voter has information

Hence, RTI is foundational for exercising the Right to Vote.

🔥 SUPER-GIST FOR MEMORY

RTI is essential for democracy → democracy depends on voting → voting requires information.

Therefore → RTI is necessary for the Right to Vote.

Q. After the 44th Constitutional Amendment, which of the following statements correctly describes the Right to Property?

(a) It can still be enforced under Article 32 as a Fundamental Right

(b) It is protected under Article 300A and requires only a valid law for deprivation

(c) It is available only against private individuals, not the State

(d) It is a Constitutional Right because it is listed in Part XII of the Constitution

✅ Correct Answer: (b)

🧠 Explanation (Examiner’s logic)

Article 300A says the State must have authority of law to take property → this makes it a legal right, not a Fundamental Right.

(a) is wrong → Article 32 does NOT apply.

(c) is wrong → Right to Property works against the State, not private parties.

(d) is a trap → It is part of the Constitution but not a Fundamental Right, so it is not a “Constitutional Right” in exam terminology.

Q. A State government acquires agricultural land for building an industrial corridor. The owners challenge the acquisition, claiming violation of their Right to Property. Which argument is constitutionally valid after the 44th Amendment?

(a) The acquisition violates a Fundamental Right guaranteed under Article 31

(b) The acquisition is invalid unless it satisfies the test of “reasonableness” under Article 19

(c) The acquisition must be backed by a valid law, otherwise it violates Article 300A

(d) The acquisition is unconstitutional because the Right to Property is a basic feature

✅ Correct Answer: (c)

🧠 Explanation (Why examiner loves this)

Article 31 no longer exists, so (a) is WRONG.

Article 19 Right to Property does NOT exist, so (b) is WRONG.

(c) is correct: Article 300A says deprivation of property must be by authority of law.

(d) is WRONG → Right to Property is NOT a basic feature.

Department wise list - 

1. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare : 

i. Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

ii. Department of Agricultural Research and Education 

2. Ministry of Ayush 

No Dept

3. Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers

i. Department of Chemicals and Petro-Chemicals 

ii. Department of Fertilizers 

iii. Department of Pharmaceuticals

4. Ministry of Civil Aviation

No Department

5. Ministry of Coal: 

No Department 

6. Ministry of Commerce and Industry 

i. Department of Commerce

ii. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade

7. Ministry of Communications:  

i. Department of Telecommunications 

ii. Department of Posts

8. Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution: 

i. Department of Consumer Affairs

ii. Department of Food and Public Distribution 

Ministry of Cooperation: 

No Department 

Ministry of Corporate Affairs

No Department 

Ministry of Culture

No department 

9. Ministry of Defence

i. Department of Defence

ii. Department of Military Affairs

iii. Department of Defence Production 

iv. Department of Defence Research and Development 

v. Department of Ex-Servicement Welfare

Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region

No Department 

10. Ministry of Earth Sciences

No Department 

10A. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology 

No Department 

11. Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change

No Department 

12. Ministry of External Affairs

No department 

13. Ministry of Finance

i. Department of Economic Affairs

ii. Department of Expenditure 

iii. Department of Revenue

iv. Department of Investment and Public Asset Management 

v. Department of Financial Services

vi. Department of Public Enterprises

13A. Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying

i. Department of Fisheries

ii. Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying 

14. Ministry of Food Processing Industries

No Department 

15. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

i. Department of Health and Family Welfare

ii. Department of Health Research 

16. Ministry of Heavy Industries

No Department 

17. Ministry of Home Affairs

i. Department of Internal Security 

ii. Department of States 

iii. Department of Official Language

iv. Department of Home

v. Department of Jammu, Kashmir and Ladakh Affairs

vi. Department of Border Management

17A. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

No Department 

18. Ministry of Education 

i. Department of School Education and Literacy

ii. Department of Higher Education 

19. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting 

No Department 

20. Ministry of Labour and Employment 

No Department 

21. Ministry of Law and Justice 

i. Department of Legal Affairs

ii. Legislative Department 

iii. Department of Justice

21A. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

No Department 

21AA Ministry of Mines

No Department 

21B Ministry of Minority Affairs

No Department 

22. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy 

No Department 

22B Ministry of Panchayati Raj

No Department 

23. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

No Department 

24. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

i. Department of Personnel and Training 

ii. Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances

iii. Department of Pensions and Pensioners Welfare

25. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas 

No Department 

26. Ministry of Planning 

No Department 

26A. Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways

No Department 

- Chief Accounting Authority of a Ministry/ Department is:

Controller General of Accounts in the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, is the Principal Accounting Adviser to Government of India and is responsible for establishing and maintaining a technically sound Management Accounting System.

- CPSEs are those companies which are under the administrative control of Central Ministry/ Department and where the equity held by the Central Government is - more than 50%.

- Statutory Bodies - NIA, NHRC, Lokpal, Lokayukta, CVC, CIC

- Repository of technical information and also advises the department on various aspects of matters dealt by them - Attached Offices

- To facilitate quicker decision-making, channels of submission should not be more than - four stages

- Secretary - Administrative Head of the Ministry/ Dept, Principal Advisor to the Minister on all policy and the administration within the Ministry/ Dept

- Special Secretary/ Additional Secretary/ Joint Secretary - One or more wings may be established with Special Secretary/ Additional Secretary / Joint Secretary, in-charge of each wing under the charge of Secretary.

- Director/ Deputy Secretary - holds the charge of a Secretariate Division and is responsible for the disposal of Government business dealt within the Division under the charge.

- Under Secretary - in-Charge of the Branch in the Ministry/ Dept consisting of one or more Sections.

-Section Officer - head of the section 

- Subsistence grant means a monthly grant made to a Government servant who is not in receipt of pay or leave salary.

THE RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT, 2005 

ARRANGEMENT OF SECTIONS 

CHAPTER I PRELIMINARY (Section 1 & 2)

1. Short title, extent and commencement. 

2. Definitions. 

CHAPTER II RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES  Section (3 to 11)

3. Right to information. 

4. Obligations of public authorities. 

5. Designation of Public Information Officers. 

6. Request for obtaining information. 

7. Disposal of request. 

8. Exemption from disclosure of information. 

9. Grounds for rejection to access in certain cases. 

10. Severability. 

11. Third party information. 

CHAPTER III THE CENTRAL INFORMATION COMMISSION (Section 12-14)

12. Constitution of Central Information Commission. 

13. Terms of office and conditions of service. 

14. Removal of Chief Information Commissioner or Information Commissioner 

CHAPTER IV THE STATE INFORMATION COMMISSION (Section 15-17)

15. Constitution of State Information Commission. 

16. Term of office and conditions of service. 

17. Removal of State Chief Information Commissioner or State Information Commissioner. 

CHAPTER V POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES  (Section 18-20)

18. Powers and functions of Information Commissions. 

19. Appeal

20. Penalties

CHAPTER VI MISCELLANEOUS (Section 21-31)

21. Protection of action taken in good faith. 

22. Act to have overriding effect. 

23. Bar ofjurisdiction of courts. 

24. Act not to apply to certain organisations. 

25. Monitoring and reporting. 

26. Appropriate Government to prepare programmes. 

27. Power to make rules by appropriate Government. 

28. Power to make rules by competent authority. 

29. Laying of rules. 

30. Power to remove difficulties. 

31. Repeal. 

THE FIRST SCHEDULE. 

THE SECOND SCHEDULE 

THE RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT, 2005 ACT 

No. 22 OF 2005 

[15th June, 2005.] 

An Act to provide for setting out the practical regime of right to information for citizens to secure access to information under the control of public authorities, in order to promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority, the constitution of a Central Information Commission and State Information Commissions and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. 

WHEREAS the Constitution of India has established democratic Republic; AND 

WHEREAS democracy requires an informed citizenly and transparency of information which are vital to its functioning and also to contain corruption and to hold Governments are their instrumentalities accountable to the governed; 

AND WHEREAS revelation of information in actual practice is likely to conflict with other public interests including efficient operations of the Governments, optimum use of limited fiscal resources and the preservation of confidentiality of sensitive information; 

AND WHEREAS it is necessary to harmonise these conflicting interests while preserving the paramountcy of the democratic ideal; 

Now, THEREFORE, it is expedient to provide for furnishing certain information to citizens who desire to have it. 

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Fifty-sixth Year of the Republic of India as follows:— 

CHAPTER I 

PRELIMINARY 

1. Short title, extent and commencement.—

(1) This Act may be called the Right to Information Act, 2005. 

(2) It extends to the whole of India***. 

(3) The provisions of sub-section (1) of section 4, sub-sections (1) and (2) of section 5, sections 12, 13, 15,16, 24, 27 and 28 shall come into force at once, and the remaining provisions of this Act shall come into force on the one hundred and twentieth day of its enactment. 

2. Definitions.— In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,— 

(a) "appropriate Government" means in relation to a public authority which is established, constituted, owned, controlled or substantially financed by funds provided directly or indirectly— 

(i) by the Central Government or the Union territory administration, the Central Government; 

(ii) by the State Government, the State Government; 

(b) "Central Information Commission" means the Central Information Commission constituted under sub-section (1) of section 12; 

(c) "Central Public Information Officer" means the Central Public Information Officer designated under sub-section (1) and includes a Central Assistant Public Information Officer designated as such under sub-section (2) of section 5; 

(d) "Chief Information Commissioner" and "Information Commissioner" mean the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioner appointed under sub-section (3) of section 12; I. The words "except the State of Jammu and Kashmir" omitted by Act 34 of 2019, s. 95 and the Fifth Schedule (w.e.f. 3 1-10-2019). 3 (e) "competent authority" means— (i) the Speaker in the case of the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of a State or a Union territory having such Assembly and the Chainnan in the case of the Council of States or Legislative Council of a State; (ii) the Chief Justice of India in the case of the Supreme Court; (iii) the Chief Justice of the High Court in the case of a High Court; (iv) the President or the Governor, as the case may be, in the case of other authorities established or constituted by or under the Constitution; (v) the administrator appointed under article 239 of the Constitution; (/) 'information" means any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks. contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force; (g) "prescribed" means prescribed by rules made under this Act by the appropriate Government or the competent authority, as the case may be; (Ii) "public authority" means any authority or body or institution of self- government established or constituted— (a) by or under the Constitution; (b) by any other law made by Parliament; (c) by any other law made by State Legislature; (ci) by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government, and includes any— (i) body owned, controlled or substantially financed; (ii) non-Government organisation substantially financed, directly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate Government; (i) "record" includes— (a) any document, manuscript and file; (b) any microfilm, microfiche and facsimile copy of a document; (c) any reproduction of image or images embodied in such microfilm (whether enlarged or not); and (ci) any other material produced by a computer or any other device; (I) "right to information" means the right to information accessible under this Act which is held by or under the control of any public authority and includes the right to— (i) inspection of work, documents, records; (ii) taking notes, extracts or certified copies of documents or records; (iii) taking certified samples of material; (iv) obtaining information in the form of diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or in any other electronic mode or through printouts where such information is stored in a computer or in any other device; (k) "State Information Commission" means the State Information Commission constituted under sub-section (1) of section 15; 

1. Under the RTI Act, 2005, who appoints the Chief Information Commissioner at the central level?

A) The President

B) The Prime Minister

C) A committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister

D) The Parliament

Answer: C

2. What is the maximum time within which information must be provided if it concerns the life and liberty of a person?

A) 30 days

B) 15 days

C) 48 hours

D) 7 days

Answer: C

3. Which of the following is not a valid ground for rejecting an RTI application under the Act?

A) Disclosure of information that prejudices India's sovereignty and integrity

B) Information already available in the public domain

C) Request for disclosure of personal information without a larger public interest

D) Information pertaining to commercial interests of private firms

Answer: D

4. Who is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the RTI Act at the central level?

A) Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT)

B) Chief Information Commission

C) Ministry of Law and Justice

D) Comptroller and Auditor General

Answer: A

5. Which section of the RTI Act specifies exemptions from disclosure of information?

A) Section 4

B) Section 6

C) Section 8

D) Section 12

Answer: C

6. Which of the following information cannot be denied to Parliament or a State Legislature under the RTI Act?

A) Cabinet papers

B) Personal information

C) Information related to trade secrets

D) Information that cannot be denied to Parliament or a State Legislature

Answer: D

7. What is the maximum penalty for a Public Information Officer (PIO) for not furnishing information on time?

A) ₹5,000

B) ₹10,000

C) ₹25,000

D) ₹50,000

Answer: C

8. The RTI Act applies to all states and union territories of India except:

A) Sikkim

B) Goa

C) Jammu and Kashmir

D) Ladakh

Answer: C (prior to the abrogation of Article 370)

9. Under Section 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act, what are public authorities required to publish proactively?

A) Their financial records

B) Monthly reports

C) Details of their functions, duties, and powers

D) Minutes of all meetings

Answer: C

10. A citizen residing outside India can seek information under the RTI Act through:

A) Indian embassies or consulates

B) A proxy applicant

C) Online portals only

D) They are not allowed to file RTI applications

Answer: A

11. Which section of the RTI Act provides for the protection of whistleblowers?

A) Section 20

B) Section 4

C) Section 11

D) The RTI Act does not have explicit provisions for whistleblowers

Answer: D

12. Under which of the following circumstances can third-party information be disclosed?

A) When it is older than 10 years

B) If the third party consents or the public interest outweighs the harm to their privacy

C) With a court order only

D) When requested by a government official

Answer: B

13. Appeals against the decision of a PIO must be made to the:

A) Central Information Commission

B) Appellate Authority within the department

C) State Information Commission

D) High Court

Answer: B

14. Which of the following provisions pertains to the fee for filing RTI applications?

A) Section 7(1)

B) Section 5(3)

C) Section 6(1)

D) Section 27

Answer: C

15. The RTI Act was enacted to promote:

A) Transparency and accountability in public administration

B) Effective implementation of government schemes

C) Freedom of speech and expression

D) Reduction in corruption

Answer: A

16. Which of the following cannot be considered a "public authority" under the RTI Act?

A) Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs) substantially funded by the government

B) Private companies

C) State-owned corporations

D) Panchayati Raj Institutions

Answer: B

17. What is the prescribed format for filing an RTI application?

A) Predefined application form provided by the department

B) Any written or electronic communication

C) Oral submission before the PIO

D) There is no prescribed format

Answer: B

18. The second appeal under the RTI Act can be filed before the:

A) District Magistrate

B) Central or State Information Commission

C) High Court

D) Supreme Court

Answer: B

19. The RTI Act mandates suo moto disclosure of information by public authorities under which section?

A) Section 8

B) Section 3

C) Section 4

D) Section 7

Answer: C

20. Which of the following was the first country to enact a law on Freedom of Information?

A) United States

B) India

C) Sweden

D) United Kingdom

Answer: C

Set 1: Advanced RTI MCQs

1. When a Public Information Officer (PIO) transfers an RTI request to another public authority, the response time for the new PIO is counted from:

A. The date the original application was received by the first PIO

B. The date the application was transferred to the new PIO

C. The date the new PIO receives the application

D. The date the applicant submits an appeal

Answer: C. The date the new PIO receives the application

2. If the information sought is partly covered under exemptions and partly not, the PIO should:

A. Reject the entire application under Section 8

B. Provide only the non-exempt information

C. Seek approval from the appellate authority before responding

D. Deny the information citing Section 9

Answer: B. Provide only the non-exempt information

3. A public authority delays providing information beyond the stipulated timeline due to a genuine technical issue. What penalty can the CIC impose?

A. No penalty, as the delay was unintentional

B. ₹250 per day up to ₹25,000, even for unintentional delays

C. Disciplinary action against the PIO without a monetary penalty

D. ₹100 per day, capped at ₹10,000

Answer: B. ₹250 per day up to ₹25,000, even for unintentional delays

4. Can a PIO refuse information if the RTI applicant has not addressed their application to the correct authority?

A. Yes, the application is invalid if addressed to the wrong authority

B. No, the PIO must transfer the application to the correct authority within 5 days

C. Yes, but only after informing the applicant in writing

D. No, the applicant must be advised to submit a fresh application

Answer: B. No, the PIO must transfer the application to the correct authority within 5 days

5. Under Section 8(1)(j), “personal information” can be disclosed if:

A. It pertains to the personal details of a government official

B. The applicant submits a notarized affidavit

C. There is a larger public interest in disclosing the information

D. The information is more than 5 years old

Answer: C. There is a larger public interest in disclosing the information

6. What should the PIO do if the information sought is in a language not understood by the applicant?

A. Deny the information

B. Provide the information in the language it exists

C. Translate the information and provide it in a language understood by the applicant

D. Seek clarification from the applicant on the preferred language

Answer: B. Provide the information in the language it exists

7. In case of incomplete information provided by the PIO, the first appellate authority can:

A. Impose a penalty on the PIO

B. Direct the PIO to provide the remaining information

C. Recommend disciplinary action against the PIO

D. Refer the case to the Central Information Commission

Answer: B. Direct the PIO to provide the remaining information

8. If the requested information is held by multiple public authorities, the PIO should:

A. Provide the applicant with the contact details of all relevant authorities

B. Transfer the application to each of the relevant public authorities

C. Provide only the part of the information available with their authority

D. Seek clarification from the applicant on which authority to approach

Answer: C. Provide only the part of the information available with their authority

9. If an RTI request involves third-party information, the PIO must:

A. Reject the request under Section 8(1)(j)

B. Seek the written consent of the third party before disclosure

C. Disclose the information after informing the third party

D. Disclose the information only after CIC approval

Answer: B. Seek the written consent of the third party before disclosure

10. Under the RTI Act, a PIO can deny information under Section 9 if:

A. It leads to a breach of copyright of a private publisher

B. The applicant is unwilling to pay the prescribed fees

C. The information pertains to personal grievances

D. It causes inconvenience to the public authority

Answer: A. It leads to a breach of copyright of a private publisher

11. Which of the following types of information is barred from disclosure under Section 24?

A. Minutes of a Cabinet meeting

B. Intelligence inputs affecting national security

C. Internal memos of a public authority

D. Annual reports of an intelligence agency

Answer: B. Intelligence inputs affecting national security

12. The role of the CIC or SIC in appeals is to:

A. Reinterpret laws and issue directions on policy

B. Review the decisions of public authorities and impose penalties if necessary

C. Frame new rules and regulations for the RTI Act

D. Approve or deny requests for classified information

Answer: B. Review the decisions of public authorities and impose penalties if necessary

13. An RTI application can be rejected if:

A. The information sought is available online

B. The applicant does not specify the format in which information is needed

C. The applicant refuses to pay the prescribed fee

D. The information involves administrative expenses

Answer: C. The applicant refuses to pay the prescribed fee

14. If a PIO fails to appear for a hearing before the CIC, the Commission can:

A. Summon the PIO and impose a monetary penalty

B. Close the case in favor of the applicant

C. Recommend the suspension of the PIO

D. Allow the appellate authority to handle the matter

Answer: A. Summon the PIO and impose a monetary penalty

15. How can the First Appellate Authority (FAA) handle repetitive RTI requests on the same subject?

A. Deny the appeal outright

B. Refer the matter to the CIC

C. Dispose of the appeal stating that the matter has already been addressed

D. Penalize the applicant

Answer: C. Dispose of the appeal stating that the matter has already been addressed

16. An RTI applicant demands information that requires data collation. The PIO should:

A. Deny the request citing excessive workload

B. Provide the information if it can be collated with reasonable effort

C. Seek clarification from the applicant to reduce the scope

D. Reject the application outright

Answer: B. Provide the information if it can be collated with reasonable effort

17. Under Section 20(1), a PIO can be penalized for:

A. Denying information for reasons of national interest

B. Failing to maintain proper records as per Section 4

C. Refusing to accept an RTI application

D. Delaying the provision of information without reasonable cause

Answer: D. Delaying the provision of information without reasonable cause

18. If a PIO provides false information under the RTI Act, the CIC/SIC can:

A. Impose a penalty of ₹250 per day up to ₹25,000

B. Recommend departmental action against the PIO

C. Both A and B

D. File a criminal case against the PIO

Answer: C. Both A and B

19. An applicant requests information that is available in the public domain. The PIO should:

A. Provide the information after charging the prescribed fee

B. Deny the information stating that it is already in the public domain

C. Redirect the applicant to the source of the information

D. Charge a penalty for wasting the public authority’s time

Answer: C. Redirect the applicant to the source of the information

20. Can an applicant file a complaint directly with the CIC without filing the first appeal?

A. Yes, in cases of non-receipt of information or PIO non-responsiveness

B. No, the first appeal is mandatory

C. Yes, but only with CIC approval

D. No, complaints cannot bypass the FAA

Answer: A. Yes, in cases of non-receipt of information or PIO non-responsiveness

Feel free to copy and use these questions! Let me know if you’d like more.

Q1 RTI includes the right to

a. inspect works, documents, records

b. take notes, extracts or certified copies of documents or records

c. take certified samples of material

d. obtain information in forms of printouts, diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or in any other electronic mode or through printouts

a. a,b and c

b. a,b and d

c. a, c and d

d. All

Ans. All of the above

Explanation: The Right to Information Act passed in 2005 extends to all states and union territories of India excepting the state of J&K. This act gives Indian citizens the right to access information about any public authority or institution, including non-government organisations substantially funded by the government. 

The main aims of the RTI Act are to provide clarity of the information to the citizens of India, to contain corruption, and to promote accountability in the working of every public authority.

Right includes:

a. Inspect works, documents, records

b. Take notes, extracts, or certified copies of documents or records

c. Take certified samples of material

d. Obtain information in form of printouts, diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or in any other electronic mode or through printouts.

Q2. Which of the following bodies comes under the purview of Right to Information (RTI)?

i. Narcotics Control Bureau

ii. Enforcement Directorate

iii. Research Analysis Wing

a. i and iii

b. ii and iii

c. i and ii

d. none

Ans. d. none

Explanation: NCB has been declared an exempt organisation under Section 24 (1) of the RTI Act, 2005

- Under Section 24 read with 2nd Schedule of the RTI Act, 2005, the Directorate of Enforcement was exempted from disclosure of information.

- Research and Analysis Wing is exempted from disclosures under RTI.

RTI - 

RTI Act, 2005 is a law enacted by the Parliament of India giving Indians access to Government records

- Under the terms of the Act, any person may request information from a "public authority" (a body of Government or Instrumentality of State) which is expected to reply expeditiously or within thirty days.

- The following are exempted from the purview of the Act

^ Matters pertaining to national sovereignty and integrity

^ Information expressly prohibited to be published by a court of law

^ Information regarding commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property etc.

Q3 If the Public Information Officer fails to give information to the informant within the period specified under the RTI Act, it is called _______

i. contempt

ii. holding information 

iii. timeout

iv. deemed rejection

Ans. iv. deemed rejection

Explanation: Deemed rejection - 

if the Public Information Officer fails to give information to the informant within the period specified under the RTI Act, 2005 it is called deemed rejection.

Q4 Which of the following does not come under the definition of 'information' under the RTI Act, 2005?

a. log books

b. circulars

c. file notings in the process

d. data material held in any electronic form

Ans. c. file notings in the process

Explanation: file notings do not come under the definition of "Information" under the RTI Act, 2005.

Section 2 (f) of the RTI Act, 2005 defines "information" as any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advice, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force. 

Q5 Out of the following statements, which is not correct about the RTI Act, 2005?

i. The RTI Act came into force from October 13, 2005

ii. Any citizen may request information from a Public Authority (both Govt and Private)

iii. Reply for information asked can be given within 30 days.

iv. There is a nominal application fee that are needs to pay to get information under the RTI application.

v. For getting information, applicant has to pay Rs.10/- per page of information for Central Govt Departments. 

a. i, ii and v

b. ii & v only

c. iii and v only

d. ii, iii, iv, and v only

Ans. i, ii and v only

Explanation: RTI is an act that sets out rules and regulations regarding citizen's right to information. It replaced the former Freedom of Information Act, 2002.

RTI Act, 2005: - 

-The RTI Bill was passed in Parliament and came into force from October 12, 2005

-The basic objective of RTI Act is to empower the citizens, promote transparency and accountability in the working of the government, contain corruption, and make our democracy work for the people in the real sense.

-any citizen may request information about the activities of the public authority i.e. government authority

- the information can be obtained within 30 days from the date of request in normal case and in the matter of life or liberty of a person, the information can be obtained within 48 hours from the time of the request.

-Certain information is prohibited under Section 8

-An appeal against the decision of the CIC or SIC can be made to an officer who is senior in rank

-There is a nominal application fee that is needed to be paid to get information under the RTI Application

-The nominal fee to get the information is Rs.10 for every application as per Rule 3 of the RTI Rules, 2005

Q5 Which of the following statements are true regarding the objectives of RTI Act, 2005? 

i. To operationalise the Fundamental Right to Information

ii. To set up system and mechanisms that facilitate people's easy access to information

iii. To promote transparency and accountability in governance

iv. to minimise corruption and inefficiency in public offices and ensure people participation in government and decision making

a. ii, iii, and iv

b. i, ii, iii and iv

c. i, ii, iii

d. i, ii, and iv

Ans. b. i, ii, iii and iv

Explanation: RTI Act 2005 is a law enacted by the Parliament of India, giving citizens of India access to records of the Central Government and State Governments

-The Act applies to all States and Union Territories of India, except the state of Jammu and Kashmir - which is covered under a State-level law

-It came into force on 12 October 2005

Objectives of RTI Act 2005 are:

-To operationalise the Fundamental Right to Information

-To set up system and mechanisms that facilitates people's easy access to information

-To promote transparency and accountability in governance

-To minimise corruption and inefficiency in public offices and ensure people participation in governance and decision-making.

Q7 Which of the following is not true with regard to the RTI Act, 2005?

a. The objective behind RTI is to maintain transparency in government operations

b. RTI is a key for empowering citizens

c. Containment of corruption in Government units is the important objective of the RTI Act

d. RTI Act appoints NITI Aayog responsible for channelising, regulating and maintaining the RTI Act in India

Ans. d. RTI Act appoints NITI Aayog responsible for channelising, regulating and maintaining the RTI Act in India

Explanation: In 1976, Raj Narain vs the State of Uttar Pradesh case, the Supreme Court ruled that the Right to Information will be treated as a fundamental right under Article 19. 

-Thus the government enacted the RTI Act, 2005 which provides machinery for exercising this Fundamental Right

-All constitutional authorities, agencies, owned and controlled, also those organisations which are substantially financed by the government comes under the purview of the Act

-The act also imposes penalties if the authorities delay in responding to the citizen in the stipulated time

-The act also mandates public authorities of union government or state government, to provide timely responses to the citizens' request the information

-The act is one of the most important acts which empowers ordinary citizens to question the government and its work.

-This has been widely used by citizens and media to uncover corruption, progress in government work, expenses-related information, etc. 

~Empower citizens to question the government

~ The Act promotes transparency and accountability in the working of the government 

~The act also helps in containing corruption in the government and works for the people in a better way

~The act envisages building better-informed citizens who would keep necessary vigil about the functioning of the government machinery.

*RTI Amendment Bill, 2013 removes political parties from the ambit of the definition of public authorities and hence from the purview of the RTI Act

*The draft provision 2017 which provides for closure of case in case of death of applicant can lead to more attacks on the lives of whistleblowers

*The proposed RTI Amendment Act 2018 is aimed at giving the Centre the power to fix the tenures and salaries of State and Central Information Commissioners, which are statutorily protected under the RTI Act. The move will dilute the autonomy and independence of CIC.

~The Act proposes to replace the fixed 5 year tenure with as much prescribed by the government 

No - Leave granted to a suspended employee

90 days before from date of suspension must be reviewed 

Rule 11 Chargesheet has no witness

Rule 14 Chargesheet should contain names of witness

Country first implemented RTI - Sweden 

RTI came into force on12 Oct 2005

First RTI State - Tamil

First RTI movement was started in Rajasthan in 1994 to fight against local corruption and exploitation by Majdur Kisan Shakti Sangathan

1. Consider the following statements regarding the competent authority under the RTI Act, 2005

Competent Authority means

1. CJI in SC

2. CJ of HC in HC 

3. the Administrator under Article 239 of Constitution of India

a. 1&2 

b. 2&3

c. 1&3

d. 1,2&3

Ans. 

2. Under RTI which is not an objective of Act?

a. promoting transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority 

b. reducing corruption and promoting good governance

c. Empowering citizens and enhancing their participation in governance

d. Providing unlimited access to classified information

Ans. 

3. Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act pertain to 

a. information that may cause a breach of privilege of Parliament 

b. Information that may prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India

c. Personal information that can be withheld if it serves a public interest 

d. Information relating to trade secrets and intellectual property

Ans. 

4. Obligations of Public Authority under RTI Act 

1. every public authority shall maintain all its records duly catalogued and indexed in a manner and the form which facilitates the RTI Act

2. every public authority shall publish the particulars of its organisation functions and duties

3. every information shall be disseminated widely and in such a manner which is easily accessible to the public. 

4. All materials shall be disseminated taking into consideration the cost effectiveness, local language and the most effective method of communication in that local area and the information should be easily accessible. 

a. 1 only

b. 1&2 only 

c. 1,2,3 only

d. 1,2,3,4

Ans. 

5. not obligation of public authority to publish information on public domain?

a. powers and duties of its officers and employees

b. norms set by it for the discharge of its functions

c. information received in confidence from foreign government 

d. names, designations and other particulars of the public information officer

Ans. 

6. exemption from disclosure of information under RTI Act

1. details in respect of information, available to or held by it, reduced in an electronic form 

2. information which has been expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law or tribunal or the disclosure of which may constitute contempt of court 

3. provide reasons for its administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to be affected person

4. information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders

Which is correct

a. 1&2 only

b. 1&3 only

c. 2&4

d. 3&4

Ans. 

7. section of RTI Act deals with penalties for non-compliance by public authorities>

a. 27

b. 20

c. 10

d. 16

Ans. Section 20(1)

8. not a ground for rejection of RTI application

a. vague / unclear application

b. application filed by an unauthorised person 

c. application requesting sensitive defence - related information

d. application seeking information from a private entity

Ans. 

9. RTI based on which FR 

a. Equality 14

b. Freedom of Speech and Expression 19

c. Life & Personal Liberty - 21

d. Exploitation 23

Ans. b. freedom of speech & expression 19

10. not correct about RTI 

a. RTI Bill has been passed by both Houses and received assent of the President on 15th June 2005

b. Any citizen may request information about the activities of the public authority.

c. there is no nominal application fee that is needed to pay to get information under RTI 

d. RTI Amendment 2019 (24 of 2019) came on 24 Oct 2019.

Ans. 

11. CIC and IC shall be appointed by the President on recommendation of a committee consisting of 

1.  PM as Chairperson 

2. Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha

3. Union Cabinet Minister nominated by PM

a. 1&2

b. 1,2,3

c. 1&3

d. 2&3

Ans. 

12. power ans function of IC to receive & inquire into a complaint from any person

rest everything is on https://dopt.gov.in/sites/default/files/ccs_leave_rules_0.pdf

https://dopt.gov.in/sites/default/files/Revised_AIS_Rule_Vol_I_Rule_03.pdf

🛫 1. Earned Leave (EL)

🗓️ What it is: Leave you “earn” by working.

📈 Accrual: 30 days/year (15 on Jan 1 & 15 on July 1). In North-East Cadre – 40 days/year (20 + 20).

📦 Carry forward limit: Max 300 days

🧾 Usage: For vacation, personal reasons, LTC, or preparatory to retirement.

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Aditi works continuously and earns 15 days of EL every 6 months. She uses 10 days to go on a family trip to Kerala.

🔍 Hidden tip:

Unused joining time (up to 15 days) is added to EL balance.

EL for officers in NE cadre = 3⅓ days/month instead of 2½ days.

💰 2. Half-Pay Leave (HPL)

📅 What it is: Leave you earn at half-pay for each month of service.

📈 Accrual: 10 days every 6 months.

💵 Pay: 50% of your usual pay.

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Ramesh has 120 days of HPL. He takes 20 days off for minor surgery, drawing half salary.

🔍 Hidden tip:

HPL is the backbone for other types like commuted leave and leave not due.

Automatically credited even if on EOL or under suspension.

🔄 3. Commuted Leave (CL)

💳 What it is: You "convert" HPL into full-pay leave — but twice the days are deducted.

🩺 Requires: Medical certificate OR

📚 Public-interest course certified by govt.

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Meena needs 20 days for medical rest. She has 100 HPL days. She takes 20 days as commuted leave, and 40 HPL days are deducted.

🔍 Hidden tip:

If you resign without returning to duty, CL turns back into HPL and you must repay the excess salary.

Can be granted without medical certificate if taken after maternity/CCL.

🚫 4. Leave Not Due (LND)

📊 What it is: Advance HPL — taken before it's actually earned.

🩺 Condition: Must be for medical reasons only.

🕓 Max limit: 360 days in entire service.

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Zafar has no leave but needs urgent back surgery. He is granted 30 days of LND and is expected to "earn" it back later.

🔍 Hidden tip:

If you resign before earning it back, you have to refund the leave salary.

Not allowed as preparatory to retirement.

🚷 5. Extraordinary Leave (EOL)

🌐 What it is: Leave without pay.

📋 Granted when:

No other leave is available

Officer requests it even when other leave is available

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Kavya wants to attend a year-long unpaid volunteer program abroad. She takes 1-year EOL with prior approval.

🔍 Hidden tip:

EOL doesn’t count for leave accrual unless contribution is paid (foreign service).

Retrospective EOL can be used to regularize unauthorised absence.

♿ 6. Special Disability Leave (SDL)

💥 What it is: Granted if injured while on duty, including armed forces

🧾 Needs: Medical certificate and proof of official injury

🕓 Max: 24 months in total

💵 Pay: Full salary for 120 days; then EL-style salary for rest (if opted)

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Sandeep is attacked during a riot control operation. He gets 8 months of SDL to recover.

🔍 Hidden tip:

Doesn’t get debited from your normal leave account.

Can be used multiple times if disability recurs.

🎓 7. Study Leave

📚 What it is: Leave to pursue higher studies (India or abroad)

📜 Conditions:

In public interest

Approved by Govt.

Usually for 1–2 years

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Sneha gets study leave for 12 months to attend a public policy course at LSE.

🔍 Hidden tip:

Doesn’t count as earned leave

Salary continues during leave, subject to rules

Often requires bond or service commitment afterward

👶 8. Maternity Leave (ML)

👩‍🍼 Who: Female officer with less than 2 surviving children

🕓 Duration: 180 days

💵 Pay: Full

🧾 No debit from leave account

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Ruchi has her first baby and is granted 180 days of paid maternity leave.

📝 Bonus:

Up to 2 years of leave (commuted, HPL, LND) can follow ML.

💔 Miscarriage/abortion: 6 weeks allowed with medical proof.

👼 9. Child Adoption Leave

👩 Who: Female officer adopting a child under 1 year

🕓 Duration: 180 days

💵 Pay: Full

🧾 No debit from leave account

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Neelam adopts a 3-month-old baby. She gets 180 days of child adoption leave.

👨‍🍼 10. Paternity Leave

👨 Who: Male officer with < 2 surviving children

🕓 Duration: 15 days

🕐 When: Up to 15 days before or 6 months after childbirth/adoption

🧾 No debit, full pay

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Varun takes 15 days off when his daughter is born.

🔍 Hidden tip:

Must be taken within 6 months — or it lapses.

Also available for adoption by male officers.

🧒 11. Child Care Leave (CCL)

👩 Who: Female officer with children under 18

🕓 Duration: Up to 730 days in service

🧾 Not debited

💵 Full pay

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Anuja takes 2 months off to care for her son undergoing surgery.

🔍 Hidden tip:

Can be taken in multiple spells

Leave (including CL and LND) up to 1 year can follow CCL

🪙 12. Leave Encashment

💰 When:

At retirement/death: Max 300 days (EL + HPL)

LTC: 10 days at a time, max 60 days during service

🧑‍💼 Example: Officer Mohan retires with 250 days EL + 70 days HPL → Gets cash for max 300 days

🧮 13. Leave Salary

💵 What you earn while on leave:

Type of Leave Leave Salary

Earned leave Full pay

Half-pay leave 50% of pay

Commuted leave Full pay

Maternity/Paternity/CCL Full pay

Extraordinary leave ❌ No salary

Special disability Full (first 120 days), then optional half-pay/EL debit

1️⃣. Officer Mishra is going on maternity leave 👶. She has one child already. How many days of maternity leave can she avail under the rules?

A. 90 days

B. 180 days

C. 240 days

D. 365 days

✅ Correct Answer: B. 180 days

2️⃣. Officer Khan, while on leave in London 🇬🇧, is suddenly recalled to duty. What is he entitled to for his journey back?

A. No benefits

B. Leave salary only

C. Free passage to India, travel allowance, and leave salary

D. Bonus and joining time

✅ Correct Answer: C. Free passage to India, travel allowance, and leave salary

3️⃣. Officer Priya takes 15 days less than her entitled joining time while relocating. How is this counted? 🚆

A. Lost forever

B. Converted to casual leave

C. Credited as earned leave (up to 15 days max)

D. Not allowed under any condition

✅ Correct Answer: C. Credited as earned leave (up to 15 days max)

4️⃣. Officer Rajesh took 10 days of leave for child adoption 👼. What is the maximum adoption leave he can take?

A. 60 days

B. 180 days

C. 90 days

D. 30 days

✅ Correct Answer: B. 180 days

5️⃣. Officer Meera, with two kids, applies for maternity leave after a miscarriage 💔. Is she eligible?

A. No

B. Yes, but only for 6 weeks with medical certificate

C. Only for 3 days

D. Only if sanctioned by the Cabinet

✅ Correct Answer: B. Yes, but only for 6 weeks with medical certificate

6️⃣. Officer Rohan, serving in Nagaland 🏞️, asks about his earned leave credit. How much earned leave is credited per year for him?

A. 30 days

B. 20 days

C. 40 days

D. 15 days

✅ Correct Answer: C. 40 days

7️⃣. Officer Sunita takes commuted leave on medical grounds. How is this debited from her leave account? 🏥

A. Equal number of half-pay leave

B. Twice the number of half-pay leave

C. As earned leave

D. No debit

✅ Correct Answer: B. Twice the number of half-pay leave

8️⃣. Officer Arjun hasn't returned from leave for over a year without permission 🚫. What can happen?

A. Suspension

B. Demotion

C. Deemed to have resigned from service

D. Warning letter only

✅ Correct Answer: C. Deemed to have resigned from service

9️⃣. Officer Neha is retiring this month. What's the max number of days of earned + half-pay leave for which she can get cash equivalent? 💸

A. 150 days

B. 180 days

C. 300 days

D. Unlimited

✅ Correct Answer: C. 300 days

🔟. Officer Vinay wants to go abroad during earned leave for a private trip ✈️. What must he do first?

A. Inform his office after returning

B. Take approval from his district collector

C. Obtain prior approval of Government of India

D. Buy travel insurance

✅ Correct Answer: C. Obtain prior approval of Government of India



1️⃣. Officer Anjali is about to retire in 3 months 🧓. What’s the maximum earned leave she can take as preparatory to retirement?

A. 180 days

B. 240 days

C. 300 days

D. 90 days

✅ Correct Answer: C. 300 days

2️⃣. Officer Shyam wants to combine study leave with earned leave to attend a course abroad 🎓✈️. Is this allowed?

A. No, study leave cannot be combined with any leave

B. Yes, with prior government approval

C. Only if the course is less than 6 months

D. Only with approval of the university

✅ Correct Answer: B. Yes, with prior government approval

3️⃣. Officer Tina took 240 days of earned leave at once to go abroad 🌍. Under what condition is this permitted?

A. Leave is spent in India

B. Leave is partly spent in Nepal or Bhutan

C. Entire leave or part of it is spent outside India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Nepal, and Pakistan

D. She is posted in the North East

✅ Correct Answer: C. Entire leave or part of it is spent outside the region specified

4️⃣. Officer Rahul dies while in service 😔. What happens to his earned leave balance?

A. It is forfeited

B. It is encashed and paid to the family (max 300 days)

C. Only half the balance is paid

D. It goes into pension

✅ Correct Answer: B. It is encashed and paid to the family (max 300 days)

5️⃣. Officer Lakshmi has already taken 60 days of commuted leave for medical reasons 🏥. Can she take 60 more for a certified study course in public interest?

A. No, 60 is the maximum

B. Yes, if government certifies the course is in public interest

C. Only if she repays salary

D. Only if the course is in India

✅ Correct Answer: B. Yes, if government certifies the course is in public interest

6️⃣. Officer Akash is under suspension and wants to opt for voluntary retirement 😐. Can he get leave encashment?

A. Never

B. Yes, if later found innocent

C. Only if Central Govt. certifies suspension was unjustified

D. Only for half-pay leave

✅ Correct Answer: C. Only if Central Govt. certifies suspension was unjustified

7️⃣. Officer Namita is on maternity leave. Can she combine it with other leave types? 👩‍🍼

A. No

B. Yes, but only with commuted leave

C. Yes, with any kind of leave due and admissible

D. Yes, but only up to 30 days

✅ Correct Answer: C. Yes, with any kind of leave due and admissible

8️⃣. Officer Iqbal served for 11 months before retirement. How is earned leave credited for him? 📆

A. 30 days

B. 2.5 days per month

C. 1 day per week

D. Only half-pay leave is credited

✅ Correct Answer: B. 2.5 days per month

9️⃣. Officer Deepika, on extraordinary leave for 4 months, asks if she’ll earn full earned leave for that period 🧾. What’s the rule?

A. Full earned leave is credited

B. No leave is credited at all

C. Leave is credited but reduced by 1/10th of EOL (max 15 days)

D. Half-pay leave is deducted

✅ Correct Answer: C. Leave is credited but reduced by 1/10th of EOL (max 15 days)

🔟. Officer Praveen wants to resign while on ‘leave not due’. What happens to that leave? 🚪

A. It becomes earned leave

B. It is cancelled from the start, and salary is recovered

C. It gets converted to maternity leave

D. It’s waived off on resignation

✅ Correct Answer: B. It is cancelled from the start, and salary is recovered



Q1. Which of the following periods will be counted as "duty" under the AIS (Leave) Rules, 1955?

Period of joining time

Time spent on probation

Period of extraordinary leave (EOL) with contribution paid

Time spent on foreign service without leave contribution

A. 1 & 2

B. 1, 2 & 3

C. All of the above

D. Only 1 & 3

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 & 3

Explanation: As per Rule 2(c) and Rule 4 Explanation, duty includes joining time, probation, and foreign service if contributions are paid. Time on foreign service without contributions does not count.

Q2. Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding earned leave crediting?

Leave is credited in two installments of 15 days each on 1st Jan and 1st July.

If the officer is in North East Cadre, the installments are 20 days each.

If an officer retires mid-year, earned leave is credited for full 30 days in advance.

Joining time not availed can be credited as earned leave (max 15 days).

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1, 2 & 4 only

C. 2 & 4 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 & 4 only

Explanation: Clause 10(1)(a), 10(1)(g), and North East provisos confirm 1, 2, 4. Clause 10(1)(e) says retirement credit is prorated (not full 30 days).

Q3. Officer Ravi took 120 days of earned leave in India 🇮🇳. Now he requests additional 60 days for travel abroad. Under Rule 11, what is the position?

A. Permissible up to 240 days if part of leave is spent abroad

B. Not allowed – Max 180 days is the cap

C. Allowed only if 120 days or less are spent in India

D. Allowed only if Central Govt. certifies it as official duty

✅ Correct Answer: C. Allowed only if 120 days or less are spent in India

Explanation: Rule 11(2) permits earned leave up to 240 days if part is abroad, but total period spent in India cannot exceed 120 days.

Q4. Which of the following can be combined with maternity leave? 👶

Commuted leave

Leave not due

Study leave

Half-pay leave

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1, 2 & 4 only

C. 1, 2, 3 & 4

D. Only 2 & 4

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 & 4 only

Explanation: Maternity leave can be combined with leave of any kind due and admissible, but not study leave. Rule 18(3) and Note.

Q5. In which of the following cases can commuted leave be granted without a medical certificate?

For a certified course of study in public interest

When combined with maternity leave

When granted during child care leave continuation

When the officer is in NE Cadre

A. Only 1

B. 1 & 3 only

C. 2 & 3 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1 & 3 only

Explanation: Rule 13(2) allows commuted leave without medical certificate for study leave in public interest, and Rule 18D(4) allows it during CCL continuation. North East cadre has no such provision.

Q6. Which of the following conditions can result in deemed resignation of a member of the Service? ❌

Absence without authorisation > 1 year after leave expiry

Continuous absence from duty > 5 years

Continuation on foreign service beyond approved period

Joining private employment without government approval

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1, 2 & 3 only

C. All of the above

D. Only 4

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 & 3 only

Explanation: Rule 7(2)(a-c) covers all three cases. Joining private employment without permission leads to disciplinary action, not automatic resignation.

Q7. Which statements about “Leave Not Due” are correct? 🩺

It is granted only on medical certificate.

It is limited to 360 days for the entire service.

It is not allowed as preparatory to retirement.

It can be cancelled and recovered if officer resigns without earning it.

A. All of the above

B. 1, 2 & 4 only

C. 1, 2 & 3 only

D. Only 1 & 4

✅ Correct Answer: A. All of the above

Explanation: All points are consistent with Rule 14 and Govt. orders under Rule 14.

Q8. When can extraordinary leave (EOL) be sanctioned? 📄

When no other leave is available

When officer applies for it even if other leave is available

Retrospectively, to regularize absence without leave

Without debiting leave account

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1, 2 & 3 only

C. All of the above

D. Only 1 & 3

✅ Correct Answer: C. All of the above

Explanation: Rule 15 (1–3) confirms all options, including retrospective sanction and non-debiting.

Q9. Which of the following officers can earn 3⅓ days of earned leave per month instead of 2½ days? 📆

Officers posted in Nagaland

Officers on inter-cadre deputation to Tripura

Officers serving in Delhi

Officers borne on North East cadre

A. 1, 2 & 4 only

B. 1 & 2 only

C. All of the above

D. Only 2 & 3

✅ Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 & 4 only

Explanation: Rule 10(1)(d) Proviso – Officers in North East cadre or on inter-cadre deputation to NE states get 3⅓ days per completed month.

Q10. Officer Zoya availed 90 days of commuted leave for a study course. Later, she resigns without returning to duty. What happens? 🎓

A. She must refund the difference between commuted and half-pay leave

B. Leave is considered earned leave

C. She can keep full leave salary

D. No recovery is made if course is approved

✅ Correct Answer: A. She must refund the difference between commuted and half-pay leave

Explanation: Rule 13(4) — Commuted leave is reversed to half-pay if officer resigns without return.



⚖️ Advanced MCQs Covering Entire AIS (Leave) Rules, 1955

Q1. Officer Amar is on half-pay leave. Under what circumstances can he draw full leave salary during this period?

If the half-pay leave is converted into commuted leave

If combined with maternity leave

If the half-pay leave is used during child care leave continuation

If approved under special disability leave rules

A. 1 & 3 only

B. 1, 3 & 4 only

C. 2, 3 & 4 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1, 3 & 4 only

Q2. Officer Raghav has 150 days of earned leave and 120 days of half-pay leave at credit at the time of superannuation. What is the maximum leave encashment he is eligible for under Rule 20A?

A. 150 days

B. 270 days

C. 300 days

D. 240 days

✅ Correct Answer: C. 300 days

Q3. Officer Sneha was on foreign service out of India and immediately took earned leave upon return. How is her leave salary computed?

Based on the actual salary drawn in foreign service

Based on salary she would have drawn if on duty in India

With reference to contributions paid to the Consolidated Fund

Based on leave salary rates under foreign employer's rules

A. 1 & 4 only

B. 2 & 3 only

C. Only 2

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: C. Only 2

Q4. Officer Nitesh took 180 days of earned leave abroad, and now seeks an extension of 60 more days abroad. What condition must he meet for this to be permissible under Rule 11(2)?

A. Half the leave must be in India

B. The additional 60 days must be spent entirely outside India

C. Total foreign stay must not exceed 90 days

D. Central Government must fund the trip

✅ Correct Answer: B. The additional 60 days must be spent entirely outside India

Q5. Under what conditions can a member of AIS be deemed to have resigned from service as per Rule 7(2)?

Absent without authorization for over one year from sanctioned leave expiry

Absent from duty for a continuous period exceeding five years

On foreign service beyond approved tenure

Returns to duty before expiry of leave period

A. 1, 2 & 3 only

B. 1 & 2 only

C. All of the above

D. Only 4

✅ Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 & 3 only

Q6. Officer Kavita took 60 days of study leave, followed by 180 days of maternity leave, and then wants to take 60 days of commuted leave. Is this permissible?

Study leave and maternity leave can be combined

Commuted leave after maternity leave is permitted up to 60 days without a medical certificate

Commuted leave is only for medical reasons

All such combinations are prohibited under Rule 13

A. Only 1

B. 1 & 2

C. 1, 2 & 3

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1 & 2

Q7. Officer Ashok dies in service while on extraordinary leave. Which statements are true?

No leave salary is payable for the EOL period

Cash equivalent of leave salary can still be paid to his family

Earned and half-pay leave standing to credit are encashable

EOL counts as qualifying service for encashment

A. 1, 2 & 3

B. Only 1 & 3

C. 2 & 4 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 & 3

Q8. Officer Malini is on foreign service in India. Which of the following must occur for her to go on leave under AIS Leave Rules?

Must be relieved of her foreign duty

Must get foreign employer’s approval

Must contribute to leave salary

Must debit the leave from foreign employer's rules

A. Only 1

B. 1 & 3

C. 1, 2 & 3

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: A. Only 1

Q9. Which of the following leave types are not debited from a member’s leave account?

Maternity leave

Special disability leave

Study leave

Paternity leave for adoption

A. Only 1 & 3

B. 1, 2, 3 & 4

C. Only 1 & 4

D. 2, 3 & 4

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1, 2, 3 & 4

Q10. Officer Sameer was dismissed from service on 10th June. How is earned leave credit calculated for the final settlement?

A. Full 15 days for the half-year

B. Only up to 31st May

C. 2½ days per completed calendar month till end of May

D. 2½ days till end of June

✅ Correct Answer: C. 2½ days per completed calendar month till end of May

Q11. Officer Geeta adopts a child aged 8 months. What is the maximum leave she can get under Rule 18A(4)? 👶

A. 1 year

B. 6 months

C. 3 months

D. No leave is granted beyond 6 months of age

✅ Correct Answer: B. 6 months

Q12. When can the Central Government relax any provision of these Leave Rules under Rule 32?

If undue hardship is caused

If the rule leads to an absurd outcome

If the officer is on deputation to UN

If the Member of Service is under suspension

A. 1 & 2 only

B. Only 1

C. 1, 2 & 3

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: A. 1 & 2 only

Q13. Which conditions apply to grant of leave to a probationer if service is being terminated?

Leave cannot go beyond probation period

Leave can exceed probation if approved

Central Government must notify DOPT

Probationer is not eligible for any leave

A. Only 1

B. 1 & 2 only

C. All of the above

D. Only 4

✅ Correct Answer: A. Only 1

Q14. When can an officer be recalled from leave under Rule 22, and what does he receive?

Travel allowance from port to duty station

Leave salary for travel time

Free passage if on leave outside India

No entitlement if recall is for inquiry

A. 1, 2 & 3 only

B. Only 3

C. All of the above

D. 2 & 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 & 3 only

Q1. A member of the Service is dismissed from duty and later reinstated by a tribunal. Regarding his leave account, which of the following apply?

Former service before dismissal counts toward leave

No leave is allowed until a fresh appointment is made

Leave availed during dismissal period is regularized

Leave is credited as if the dismissal never occurred

A. 1 & 3 only

B. Only 1

C. 1 & 4 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: B. Only 1

📘 Rule 30: Only past service is counted. Leave during the dismissed period isn't earned.

Q2. Under what conditions can the government compel an officer to take leave?

Never, unless during suspension

In public interest

On medical unfitness certified by government doctor

With Cabinet Secretary’s approval

A. Only 1

B. 2 & 3 only

C. All of the above

D. Only 3

✅ Correct Answer: A. Only 1

📘 Rule 3(2): Leave cannot be forced unless requested by the officer. Even medical leave cannot be imposed.

Q3. Which of the following are true about leave under foreign service in India?

Leave must be approved by foreign employer

Officer must be relieved from foreign duty

Leave contributions are to be paid

Leave is governed by AIS (Leave) Rules

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 2, 3 & 4 only

C. Only 3 & 4

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: B. 2, 3 & 4 only

📘 Rule 26: Leave cannot be availed unless relieved. Contributions must be paid.

Q4. If an officer is absent after expiry of leave without extension, what happens under Rule 24?

That period is automatically LND

That period becomes half-pay leave

No leave salary is payable for that period

Disciplinary action may follow

A. Only 2 & 3

B. Only 3 & 4

C. 2, 3 & 4

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: C. 2, 3 & 4

📘 Rule 24: Absence = half-pay leave, no salary, and disciplinary action is likely.

Q5. Officer takes commuted leave but resigns before returning to duty. Which of these apply under Rule 13(4)?

Leave becomes half-pay leave

Extra salary must be refunded

Entire leave becomes EOL

No recovery is made if resignation is for health reasons

A. 1, 2 & 4

B. Only 1 & 2

C. All of the above

D. 2 & 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 & 4

📘 Resignation after commuted leave → repayment unless resignation is due to health.

Q6. Under Rule 19, leave can be converted from one type to another retrospectively. Which are valid examples of such conversion?

EOL to half-pay leave when HPL becomes due later

Earned leave to maternity leave

Commuted leave to HPL if officer resigns

Study leave to EOL if not approved by Government

A. 1, 2 & 3

B. 1 & 3 only

C. All of the above

D. Only 3 & 4

✅ Correct Answer: C. All of the above

📘 Rule 19 permits retrospective conversion for adjustment or correction.

Q7. When is the government bound to sanction cash equivalent of leave salary “suo motu”?

Retirement

Death in service

Resignation

Dismissal from service

A. 1 & 2 only

B. All of the above

C. 1, 2 & 3 only

D. 1, 2 & 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: A. 1 & 2 only

📘 Rule 20A: Suo motu encashment is only on retirement or death.

Q8. An officer is placed on foreign service outside India, and immediately after that takes leave. What governs his leave during that period?

Employer’s rules (foreign org)

AIS (Leave) Rules, 1955

Leave conditions pre-decided in MoU

Officer can self-sanction EOL

A. 1 & 3 only

B. Only 2

C. 1, 2 & 3

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: A. 1 & 3 only

📘 Rule 27: Leave outside India governed by foreign employer or negotiated terms, not AIS Leave Rules.

Q9. What is the rule for leave accumulation for a State service officer appointed to AIS for the first 5 years?

EL cap of 300 does not apply

Leave above 300 lapses after 5 years

Cannot earn further leave if balance >300

Can draw encashment after 3 years

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1, 2 & 3 only

C. All of the above

D. Only 1 & 3

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 & 3 only

📘 Rule 10(3): Special provision for State officers entering AIS.

Q10. Which powers have been delegated to Ministries/Departments under Govt of India’s orders for officers under their control?

Conversion of leave under Rule 19

Grant of maternity leave

Grant of commuted leave

Extension beyond 5 years leave

A. Only 1, 2 & 3

B. All of the above

C. 2 & 4 only

D. 1, 3 & 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: A. Only 1, 2 & 3

📘 Delegated powers exclude authority to override Rule 7(1) (max 5 years absence).

Q1. Officer Priya is a probationer and her services are being terminated. Which of the following applies to her leave eligibility?

She can take leave till the expiry of her current probation period

She may not take leave that extends beyond termination

Leave is allowed only with approval of cadre controlling authority

Maternity leave is exempt from this limitation

A. Only 2

B. 1 & 2 only

C. 1, 2 & 4

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: C. 1, 2 & 4

📘 Rule 29: Leave must not extend beyond probation expiry. But maternity leave is allowed as per Rule 18.

Q2. Officer Zainab is sanctioned earned leave from 1st July. When is this leave deemed to commence as per Rule 5?

A. 1st July

B. 30th June

C. Date of handing over charge

D. First public holiday after 1st July

✅ Correct Answer: C. Date of handing over charge

📘 Leave begins on date of transfer of charge and ends day before resuming.

Q3. Officer Ashutosh is on study leave in Germany. He is granted additional 10 days of leave abroad. Who pays the leave salary if no prior agreement exists under Rule 27?

A. His foreign university

B. Government of India

C. Not entitled to any leave salary

D. Ministry of External Affairs

✅ Correct Answer: C. Not entitled to any leave salary

📘 Rule 27(1): If no pre-arrangement with employer, leave outside India is not paid by GoI.

Q4. Officer Simran on deputation to World Bank continues there beyond approved period. Which is the correct outcome under Rule 7(2)?

A. She can apply for ex-post facto approval

B. She is deemed resigned from service

C. Treated as EOL

D. Services extended for 1 year automatically

✅ Correct Answer: B. She is deemed resigned from service

📘 Rule 7(2)(c): Unauthorized continuation in foreign service = resignation unless condoned.

Q5. Officer Anoop is under suspension and draws subsistence allowance below DA threshold. Is he eligible for DA during suspension?

A. No, DA is not allowed during suspension

B. Yes, but only at pensioner rate

C. Yes, if allowance < threshold

D. Only with court permission

✅ Correct Answer: C. Yes, if allowance < threshold

📘 Govt Order under Rule 20: DA is payable if pay/subsistence falls below threshold.

Q6. Officer Vandana is retiring with 310 days of EL + 80 days of HPL. What is the maximum encashment she can get?

A. 310 days

B. 300 days

C. 390 days

D. 240 days

✅ Correct Answer: B. 300 days

📘 Rule 20A: Total encashment is capped at 300 days across EL + HPL.

Q7. An officer overstays sanctioned leave by 15 days. The department wants to regularize it. What options are valid under rules?

Convert it to EOL

Treat it as half-pay leave if balance allows

Recover overpaid salary

Take disciplinary action

A. 1 & 2 only

B. All of the above

C. 1, 2 & 3 only

D. Only 3 & 4

✅ Correct Answer: B. All of the above

📘 Rule 24 + Rule 19: Conversion, recovery & discipline are all valid options.

Q8. Under the Residuary Matters Rules, which applies to AIS officers working with a State Government where AIS rules are silent?

A. They follow Central Govt. Group A rules

B. They follow State Civil Services Class I rules

C. They follow IPS (Cadre) Rules

D. They follow DoPT handbook

✅ Correct Answer: B. They follow State Civil Services Class I rules

📘 As per Residuary Matters Rules, Rule 2(b): For AIS under State Govt.

Q9. Officer Asha adopts a 10-month-old child. What is the maximum total leave (including follow-up leave) she can get under Rule 18A(4)?

A. 180 days

B. 3 months

C. 6 months

D. 1 year

✅ Correct Answer: B. 3 months

📘 Rule 18A(4)(c): Child aged 9–10 months → Max leave = 3 months.

Q10. Who is responsible for maintaining leave accounts of members of AIS under Rule 31?

A. Comptroller and Auditor General

B. Ministry of Personnel

C. The Government (State/Central) concerned

D. Department of Expenditure

✅ Correct Answer: C. The Government (State/Central) concerned

📘 Rule 31(1): Leave account must be maintained by the relevant government.

TA

https://dopt.gov.in/sites/default/files/Revised_AIS_Rule_Vol_I_Rule_09.pdf

🧳 Challenging MCQs on AIS Travelling Allowance Rules

(Confusing-style options: Only 1, 1 & 2, All of the above, etc.)

Q1. A member of the Service is travelling on duty by train. Which statements are correct as per Rule 3(1)?

He is entitled to highest class other than air-conditioned by default

He can choose AC travel if first class is unavailable

If travelling in AC class by choice, he always gets AC fare reimbursement

A. Only 1

B. 1 & 2 only

C. 2 & 3 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1 & 2 only

📘 Explanation:

By default, officers are entitled to the highest non-AC class unless Govt. permits AC explicitly.

If first class is not available, officer may opt for AC and claim first-class equivalent fare, not full AC fare.

Q2. Which of the following is true regarding travel allowance to the family of a deceased officer?

Travel must be completed within 6 months of death

Family can claim TA from any station where they were staying, not just last HQ

Full AC fare is reimbursable irrespective of officer’s eligibility

A. Only 1

B. 1 & 2 only

C. All of the above

D. 2 & 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1 & 2 only

📘 Explanation:

Travel must be completed within 6 months after the officer's death

Family may begin journey from any location, but cost is limited to what it would be from last HQ

AC fare is not automatically reimbursable unless the officer was entitled

Q3. In case of retirement, which of the following conditions must be met for TA eligibility under GOI OM (11 July 1960)?

Travel must be to the declared hometown only

The journey may be done during LPR or within 1 year post-retirement

Reimbursement is allowed even if family members travel within 6 months after the officer

A. Only 2

B. 2 & 3 only

C. All of the above

D. 1 & 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: B. 2 & 3 only

📘 Explanation:

Travel need not be to declared hometown — can be any place of permanent settlement

Family can travel up to 6 months after the officer; still eligible

Officer can travel during LPR or within 1 year

Q4. Under which of the following conditions is TA not admissible on retirement?

Officer resigns

Officer retires on invalidation

Temporary officer with 12 years of service

Officer retires to a foreign country

A. Only 1

B. 1 & 4 only

C. 1, 2 & 4 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1 & 4 only

📘 Explanation:

Resignation disqualifies officer from retirement TA

Retirement TA is allowed for invalidation

Temporary employees with 10+ years are eligible

If settling abroad, TA is allowed only up to port/airport

Q5. Which of the following are true about travel to peruse records in disciplinary cases (for AIS officers)?

TA is allowed only if under suspension

Period of travel may be treated as duty or leave depending on service status

Journey must be pre-approved and certified necessary

A. 2 & 3 only

B. Only 3

C. All of the above

D. 1 & 2 only

✅ Correct Answer: A. 2 & 3 only

📘 Explanation:

TA is allowed whether or not officer is suspended

Travel time is treated as duty or leave, depending on whether officer was on duty or leave

Requires certificate from inquiry officer and approval from head of office

Q6. For an AIS officer retiring from Central Govt service without reverting to state cadre, which TA rules apply?

State Government rules

Central Government rules

No TA admissible unless repatriated

Depends on pay scale

A. Only 2

B. 1 & 4 only

C. Only 3

D. 2 & 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: A. Only 2

📘 Explanation:

Per Govt. decision, AIS officers on Central deputation retiring without returning to state cadre are governed by Central Govt retirement TA rules

Pay scale does not affect the applicability of the rules

Q7. For an officer settling in the same station after retirement, what TA benefits are admissible?

Packing allowance

Mileage for travel to new home if residence changed

Reimbursement for personal effects transport

Lumpsum transfer grant

A. 2 & 3 only

B. 1, 2 & 3 only

C. All of the above

D. Only 3

✅ Correct Answer: A. 2 & 3 only

📘 Explanation:

If officer shifts residence within same city, they get:

✅ Cost of transporting effects

✅ Road mileage for family if residence changed

❌ No packing allowance or lumpsum transfer grant

Q8. Which of the following apply when an AIS officer uses a private car instead of train during retirement journey?

He can claim mileage allowance up to rail fare

If family travels with him, extra mileage is admissible

Private car use disqualifies TA unless permitted by Finance Ministry

A. Only 1

B. 1 & 2 only

C. 2 & 3 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1 & 2 only

📘 Explanation:

TA claims using a private vehicle are admissible up to rail fare limits

Extra mileage allowed depending on how many family members travel

No special Finance Ministry approval is required for personal car use

Q9. Officer Arvind travels partly by train, partly by air on transfer. What applies to his TA claim?

Each leg is reimbursed as per mode used

Entire travel must be calculated using single mode

He can claim composite allowance if journey includes both road and rail

Fare is limited to shortest route only

A. 1 & 3 only

B. Only 1

C. 1, 3 & 4 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: C. 1, 3 & 4 only

📘 Explanation:

TA is split per actual modes used

Composite transfer grant, packing, and luggage cost apply if multi-modal

Journey is reimbursed shortest route basis

Q10. Which of the following conditions apply to retired officers claiming TA for moving personal car?

Car must be owned and used while in service

It must have been certified to be in public interest

Car transport is not reimbursable if retired at own request

Reimbursement is capped to AC-III fare equivalent

A. 1 & 2 only

B. Only 2

C. 2 & 4 only

D. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: A. 1 & 2 only

📘 Explanation:

Car must be in use during last posting, and considered in public interest

TA is not denied for voluntary retirement

Reimbursement is actual cost, not AC-III fare equivalent

Citizen Charter

Origin - the concept of Citizens' Charter enshrines the trust between the service provider and its users. The concept was first articulated and implemented in the United Kingdom by the Conservative Government of John Major in 1991 as a national programme with a simple aim: to continuously improve the quality of public services for the people of the country so that these services respond to the needs and wishes of the users. The programme was re-launched in 1998 by the Labour Government of Tony Blair which rechristened it Services Fast. 

The basic objective of the Citizen's Charter is to empower the citizen in relation to public service delivery. Six principles of the Citizens Charter movement as originally framed, were: 

i. Quality - improving the quality of service

ii. Choice - Wherever possible

iii. Standards - Specify what to expect and how to act if standards are not met

iv. Value: For the taxpayers money 

v. Accountability - Individuals and Organisations

vi. Transparency - Rules / Procedures / Schemes / Grievances

The Indian Scene - 

Over the years, in India, significant progress has been made in the field of economic development. This, along with a substantial increase in the literacy rate, (from 51.63% to 65.38% in the last decade) has made Indian citizens increasingly aware of their rights. Citizens have become more articulate and expect the administration not merely to respond to their demands but also to anticipate them. 

Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Government of India (DARPG) initiated the task of coordinating, formulating and operationalising Citizen's Charters. Guidelines for formulating the Charters as well as a list of do's and don'ts were communicated to various government departments/ organisations to enable them to bring out focused and effective charters. 

The Charters are expected to incorporate the following elements: 

i. Vision and Mission statement 

ii. Details of business transacted by the Organisation 

iii. Details of clients

iv. Details of services provided to each client group 

v. Details of grievance redress mechanism and how to access it

vi. Expectations from the clients. 

Evaluation of Citizens' Charters

During the Year 2002-03, DARPG engaged a professional agency to develop a standardised model for internal and external evaluation of Citizens' Charters in a more effective, quantifiable and objective manner. This agency also carried out evaluation of implementation of Charters in 5 Central Government Organisations and 15 Departments/ Organisations of States of Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh. This Agency was also required to suggest methods for increasing awareness, both within the organisation and among the users, and to suggest possible methods for orientation of management and the staff in the task of formulating and deploying Charters.

As per the report of evaluation carried out by the Agency, major findings were:

(i) In majority of cases Charters were not formulated through a consultative process

(ii) By and large service providers are not familiar with the philosophy, goals and main features of the Charter

(iii) Adequate publicity to the Charters had not been given in any of the Departments evaluated. In most Departments, the Charters are only in the initial or middle stage of implementation

(iv) No funds have been specifically earmarked for awareness generation of Citizens' Charter or for orientation of staff on various components of the Charter

Q What is a Citizen's Charter?

Ans. Citizen's Charter is a document which represents a systematic effort to focus on the commitment of the Organisation towards its Citizens in respects of Standards of Services, Information, Choice and Consultation, Non-Discrimination and Accessibility, Grievance Redress, Courtsey and Value for Money. This also includes expectations of the Organisation from the Citizen for fulfilling the commitment of the Organisation.

Q Who is a 'Citizen' with reference to Citizen's Charter?

Ans. The term 'Citizen' in the Citizen's Charter implies the clients or customers whose interests and values are addressed by the Citizen's Charter and therefore, includes not only the citizens but also all the stakeholders, i.e. citizens, customers, clients, users, beneficiaries, other Ministries/ Departments/ Organisations, State Governments, UT Administrators etc. 

Q Whether Ministries/ Department/ Agencies of the State Governments and UT Administrations are also required to formulate Citizen's Charters?

Ans. Citizen's Charter initiative not only covers the Central Govt Ministries/ Departments/ Organisations but also the Departments/ Agencies of State Governments and UT Administrations. Various Departments/ Agencies of many State Governments and UT Administrations have brought out their Charters. More than 600 Citizen's Charters have so far been issued by Agencies/ Organisation of 24 States/ UTs. 

Q Whether Citizen's Charter is legally enforceable?

Ans. No. The Citizen's Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non-justiciable. However, It is a tool for facilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frame etc. with commitments from the Organisation and its clients. 

Q What is the role of Dept of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Citizen's Charter Initiative in the Government?

Ans. Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India, in its efforts to provide more responsive and citizen-friendly governance, coordinates the efforts to formulate and operationalise Citizens' Charters in Central Government, State Governments and UT Administrations. It provides guidelines for formulation and implementation of the Charters as well as their evaluation. 

Q What are the components of a Citizen's Charter?

Ans. A good Citizen's Charter should have the following components: - 

i. Vision and Mission Statement of the Organisation. 

ii. Details of Business transacted by the Organisation.

iii. Details of Citizens' or Clients.

iv. Statement of services including standards, quality, time frame etc. provided to each Citizen/ Client group separately and how/ where to get the services. 

v. Details of Grievance Redress Mechanism and how to access it. 

vi. Expectations from the 'Citizens' or 'Clients'.

vii. Additional commitments such as compensation in the event of failure of service, delivery. 

Constitutional Bodies

Constitutional bodies are important bodies in India that derive their powers and authorities from the Indian Constitution.

i. They are specifically mentioned in the Constitution, meaning they have dedicated articles.

ii. Any change in the mechanism of these bodies would require a constitutional amendment.

iii. Important bodies such as the Finance Commission, the UPSC, the Election Commission, the CAG, National Commissions for SCs and STs, etc. are constitutional bodies.

Statutory Bodies in India

These are non-constitutional bodies as they do not find any mention in the Constitution.

i. They are also important bodies due to their function.

ii. They are created by an Act of Parliament.

iii. These are also termed non-constitutional bodies that make rules & regulations and take decisions on behalf of the government.

iv. They are called ‘statutory’ since statutes are laws made by the Parliament or the legislature.

v. Since these bodies derive their power from statutes or laws made by the Parliament, they are known as statutory bodies.

vi. Some examples of statutory bodies are National Commission for Women, National Human Rights Commission, National Green Tribunal, etc.

List of Important Statutory Bodies in India 

i. Securities & Exchange Board of India - SEBI Act, 1992

ii. National Human Rights Commission - Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993

iii. National Commission for Women - National Commission for Women Act, 1990

iv. National Commission for Minorities - National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992

v. National Green Tribunal - National Green Tribunal Act 2010

vi. Armed Forces Tribunal  - Armed Forces Tribunal Act 2007

vii. Unique Identification Authority of India Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016

viii. Central Vigilance Commission Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003 

ix. Commission for Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region (NCR) and Adjoining Areas Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Ordinance, 2020

x. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights - Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005

xi. Competition Commission of India - Competition Act, 2002

xii. National Legal Services Authority - Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987

xiii. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development - National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act, 1981

Regulatory Bodies in India

Regulatory bodies are public or government agencies responsible for exercising autonomous authority over some area of human activity in a regulatory or supervisory capacity.

i. Some regulatory bodies are independent, which means they are independent of any branch of the government.

ii. They are set up to enforce safety and standards.

iii. They have the charge of establishing norms of a particular area of human activity, and also supervising the bodies employed in that activity.

iv. They are established by legislative acts. 

v. The main functions of the regulatory body are typically identified as follows:

a. Regulations and guides

b. Review and assessment

c. Licensing

d. Inspection

e. Corrective actions

f. Enforcement

i. RBI - Banking, monetary policy and finance

ii. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) -Insurance 

iii. Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority (PFRDA) - Pension

iv. National Housing Bank (NHB) - Housing finance

v. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) - Telecom and tariffs

vi. Central Board of Film Certification - Film certification and censorship

vii. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) - Food safety

viii. Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) - Standards and certification

ix. Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) - Cricket 

Executive Bodies: - 

These bodies are non-constitutional and non-statutory. 

a. They are not mentioned in the Constitution.

b. They are also not established by an act of Parliament.

c. They are formed by executive resolution or action, which means that they are formed by the government’s action only.

d. They can be converted into a statutory body by enacting a law. For example, the UIDAI was made into a statutory body after it was established by enacting a new law.

List of Executive Bodies (Non-Constitutional Body/Executive Body) -

i. Niti Ayog

ii. National Development Council

iii. Central Bureau of Investigation

Judicial Bodies

Judicial bodies are courts in India. Their chief objective is to provide justice by following the laws of the land.

i. Supreme Court of India

ii. High Court of India

Quasi-judicial Bodies

A quasi-judicial body can be an individual or body with powers resembling a court of law.

-They can adjudicate and decide penalties on the guilty.

-They are different from judicial bodies in that their field is limited compared to a court.

-They can be formed on a matter pending in court, by court order if the court considers it necessary; the court reserves the right to appoint members of such a body.

-They can be tribunals for a specific domain, or like an arbitrator.

-Quasi-judicial bodies have adjudicating powers in such matters as:

=Breach of discipline;

=Trust in money matters or otherwise

=Conduct rules

Their authority is limited to specific areas like: Financial markets; Land use and zoning; Public standards; Employment law; Specific set of regulations of an agency

-Decisions of a quasi-judicial body are often legally enforceable under the laws of a jurisdiction.

List of Quasi-Judicial Bodies in India are:

i. National Green Tribunal

ii. Central Information Commission

iii. National Human Rights Commission

iv. Tribunal

v. SEBI

Note: A single body can be a statutory, regulatory, and quasi-judicial body

Difference between Judicial and Quasi-judicial Bodies

i. Judicial decisions are bound by precedent in common law, whereas quasi-judicial decisions are generally not.

ii. Judicial decisions may create new laws, but quasi-judicial decisions are based on existing law.

iii. Quasi-judicial needn’t adhere to strict judicial rules (of procedure and evidence).

iv. Quasi-judicial bodies can hold formal hearings only if they are mandated to do so as per their governing laws.

Q What is the difference between statutory and constitutional bodies?

Ans. Statutory bodies are established by an act of a parliament whereas constitutional bodies are mentioned in the constitution and derive their powers from it.

Q Is CBI a statutory body?

Ans. The CBI is not a statutory body although it derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946, which was passed in British India.

Q When can a quasi-judicial body be formed?

Ans. A Quasi-Judicial body can be formed on a matter pending in court, by court order if the court considers it necessary; the court reserves the right to appoint members of such a body.

Q Which body can be formed by governments action only?

Ans. Executive bodies are are formed by executive resolution or government actions. These are not mentioned in the constitution and are not established by an act of parliament. These bodies can be converted into a statutory body by enacting a law.

Q Is NITI Aayog statutory body?

Ans. NITI Aayog is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body. It is an executive body.

Statutory Bodies 

Aeronautical Development Agency, Ministry of Defence 

Agharkar Research Institute (ARI) 

Agricultural Scientists Recruitment Board (ASRB), New Delhi 

Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority 

Airports Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA) 

Ali Yavar Jung National Institute for the Hearing Handicapped (AYJNIHH) 

Ali Yavar Jung National Institute of Speech and Hearing Disabilities (Divyangjan) 

Aligarh Muslim University (AMU) 

All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA), Ministry of AYUSH 

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) 

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Bhopal 

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Jodhpur 

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Patna 

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Raipur 

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Rishikesh 

All India Institute of Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation, Mumbai 

All India Institute of Speech and Hearing (AIISH), Mysore 

All India Radio (AIR) 

Apex Hi-Tech Institute, Bangalore 

Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) 

Assam University 

Atomic Energy Central School, Narwapahar, Jharkhand 

Atomic Energy Central School-5, Anushaktinagar, Mumbai, Maharashtra 

Atomic Energy Education Society (AEES) 

Babu Jagjivan Ram National Foundation(BJRNF) 

Batteries(Importers) Registration and Management System Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), Delhi 

Bhakra Beas Management Board (BBMB) 

Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N) 

Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC), New Delhi 

Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany 

Board of Practical Training (BOPT), Easter Region 

Brahmaputra Board Guwahati, Assam 

Building Materials and Technology Promotion Council (BMTPC) 

Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) 

Bureau of Immigration (BoI), Ministry of Home Affairs 

Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) 

CBI Academy, Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh 

Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA), New Delhi 

Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) 

Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) 

Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) 

Central Council for Research in Yoga & Naturopathy (CCRYN), New Delhi 

Central Council of Indian Medicine, New Delhi 

Central Detective Training School, Chandigarh 

Central Detective Training School, Kolkata 

Central Electricity Authority (CEA) 

Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) 

Central Farm Machinery Training and Testing Institute, Budni 

Central Footwear Training Institute,Chennai 

Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL), Bhopal 

Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL), Guwahati 

Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL), Hyderabad 

Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL), Pune 

Central Government Employees Welfare Housing Organisation (CGEWHO) 

Central Information Commission (CIC) 

Central Institute Of Hand Tools, Jalandhar, Punjab 

Central Institute of Classical Tamil (CICT) 

Central Institute of Educational Technology (CIET) 

Central Institute of Horticulture, Nagaland 

Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL) 

Central Research Institute (CRI), Kasauli, Himachal Pradesh 

Central Road Research Institute 

Central Silk Board 

Central Staff Training and Research Institute (CSTARI), Kolkata 

Central Tibetan Schools Administration (CTSA) 

Central Institute of Tool Design (CITD) 

Central Manufacturing Technology Institute (CMTI) 

Central Muga Eri Research and Training Institute (CMER and TI), Lahdoigarh, Jorhat, Assam 

Central Power Research Institute (CPRI), Bangalore, Karnataka 

Central Pulp and Paper Research Institute (CPPRI), Saharanpur 

Central Universities , Ministry of Human Resource Development 

Central University of Bihar (CUB) 

Central University of Haryana 

Central University of Himachal Pradesh 

Central University of Karnataka 

Central University of Kashmir 

Central University of Odisha, Koraput 

Central University of Punjab (CUP) 

Central University of Rajasthan 

Central University of Tamil Nadu 

Central Vigilance Commission(CVC) 

Central Waqf Council 

Central Wool Development Board 

Central Zoo Authority (CZA) 

Centre for Cultural Resources and Training (CCRT) 

Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD) 

Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) 

DETAILS

Centre for Materials for Electronics Technology (C-MET) 

DETAILS

Centre for Womens Development Studies (CWDS) 

Chennai Port Trust 

Controller General Of Communication Accounts (CGCA) 

Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks 

Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA) 

DETAILS

Controller of Defence Accounts, Chennai 

Council of Architecture 

Children's Film Society, India 

Coal Mines Provident Fund Organisation (CMPFO) 

Cochin Port Trust 

Coffee Board, India 

Coir Board, , Ministry of Micro Small and Medium Enterprises 

Commisssion for Scientific and Technical Terminology (CSTT) 

Competent Authority (CA), Chennai 

Competition Commission of India 

Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC) 

Consultancy Development Centre (CDC), DSIR 

Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) 

Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) 

Deendayal Port Trust, Gandhidham, Kutch, Gujarat 

Defence Security Corps 

Delhi Public Library 

Delhi Urban Art Commission (DUAC) 

Dental Council of India 

Desert Medicine Research Centre, ICMR, Jodhpur, Rajasthan 

Directorate General of Shipping 

Distance Education Bureau (DEB) - A Bureau of University Grants Commission (UGC) 

Footwear Design and Development Institute (FDDI) 

Fragrance and Flavour Development Centre (FFDC), Uttar Pradesh 

Gandhi Smriti and Darshan Samiti (GSDS) 

Geographical Indications Registry (GIR) 

Himalayan Forest Research Institute 

Dr B R Ambedkar National Institute of Technology, Jalandhar 

Dr. Ambedkar International Centre 

Education and Research Network (ERNET) 

DETAILS

Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) 

Employees State Insurance Corporation (ESI) - Post Graduate Institute of Medical Science and Research, Andheri 

Employees State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) 

Export Inspection Council (EIC) 

Film and Television Institute of India (FTII) 

Fluid Control Research Institute (FCRI), Palakkad 

Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) 

Homoeopathic Pharmacopoeia Laboratory (HPL), Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh 

ICAR - Agricultural Technology Application Research Institute (ATARI), Hyderabad 

ICAR-Directorate of Weed Research (DWR) Jabalpur 

Income-tax Settlement Commission / Wealth-tax Settlement Commission 

India Brand Equity Foundation (IBEF), Haryana 

Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (IACS), Kolkata 

Indian Coast Guard 

Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) 

DETAILS

Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) 

Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun 

India Government Mint, Kolkata 

India Government Mint, Noida 

India International Convention and Expo Centre (IICC), Dwarka, New Delhi 

India Power map 

Indian Academy of Sciences, Bangalore, Karnataka 

Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR), New Delhi 

Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) 

Indian Council of Philosophical Research, ICPR, New Delhi 

Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) 

Indian Diamond Institute 

Indian Institute of Advanced Study (IIAS) 

Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) 

Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs 

Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA) 

Indian Institute of Entrepreneurship 

Indian Institute of Information Technology (IIIT), Una, Himachal Pradesh 

Indian Institute of Information Technology and Management (IIITM), Gwalior 

Indian Institute of Information Technology, Allahabad (IIITA) 

Indian Institute of Information Technology, Design and Manufacturing (IIITD & M), Kancheepuram, Tamilnadu 

Indian Institute of Information Technology, Design and Manufacturing (IIITDM) Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh 

Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad (IIMA) 

Indian Institute of Management, Bangalore (IIMB) 

Indian Institute of Management, Calcutta (IIMC) 

Indian Institute of Management, Indore (IIMI) 

Indian Institute of Management, Kozhikode (IIMK) 

Indian Institute of Food Processing Technology (IIFPT), Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu 

Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT) 

Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM) 

Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM), Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh 

Indian Institute of Geomagnetism 

Indian Institute of Information Tehnology(IIITs) 

Indian Institute of Legal Metrology 

Indian Institute of Management (IIM) 

Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Sirmaur, Himachal Pradesh 

Indian Institute of Management Tiruchirappalli (IIM Tiruchirappalli) 

Indian Institute of Management, Lucknow (IIML) 

Indian Institute of Management, Raipur(IIMR) 

Indian Institute of Management, Rohtak(IIMR) 

Indian Institute of Mass Communication (IIMC) 

Indian Institute of Millets Research (IIMR) 

Indian Institute of Packaging 

Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA) 

Indian Institute of Science (IISC), Bangalore 

Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Bhopal 

Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Kolkata 

Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Bombay (IITB) 

Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Kharagpur 

Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Madras 

Indian Institute of Technology (IITK), Kanpur 

Indian Institute of Technology (IITRPR), Ropar, Rupnagar 

Indian Institute of Technology (Indian School of Mines), IIT (ISM), Dhanbad, Jharkhand 

Indian Institute of Technology Gandhinagar (IITGn), Gujarat 

Indian Institute of Technology Indore (IITI), Madhya Pradesh 

Indian Institute of Technology Jodhpur (IITJ), Rajasthan 

Indian Institute of Technology Patna (IITP), Bihar 

Indian Institute of Technology Roorkee 

Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi (IITD) 

Indian Institute of Technology, Guwahati (IITG) 

Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad 

Indian Institute of Technology, Mandi (IIT - Mandi), Himachal Pradesh 

Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Mohali 

Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISERs) 

Indian Institute of Science Education and Research Thiruvananthapuram (IISER-TVM) 

Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) 

Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Bhubaneswar 

Indian Institute of Tourism & Travel Management(IITTM), Noida 

Indian Institute of Tourism and Travel Management (IITTM) 

Indian Institute of Tourism and Travel management (IITTM), Bhubaneswar 

Indian Institute of Tourism and Travel management (IITTM), Nellore 

Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) 

Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) 

Indian National Science Academy (INSA) 

Indian Naval Academy 

Indian Nursing Council 

Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) 

Indian Plywood Industries Research and Training Institute (IPIRTI) 

Indian Railway Institute of Signal Engineering and Telecommunications, Secunderabad 

Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering (IRICEN) 

Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering (IRIEEN) 

Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering (IRIMEE), Jamalpur 

Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) 

Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Manav Sangrahalaya 

Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Uran Academy (IGRUA) 

Indo Tibetan Border Police Force Academy, Mussoorie, Uttarakhand 

Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) 

Institute For Design Of Electrical Measuring Instruments, Mumbai 

Institute for Plasma Research (IPR) 

Institute for Social and Economic Change (ISEC) 

Institute for Stem Cell Biology and Regenerative Medicine (inStem) 

Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology (IASST) 

Indian Railways Institute of Transport Management (IRITM), Lucknow 

Indian Rubber Manufactures Research Association (IRMRA), Thane 

Indian Science Congress Association, Kolkata 

Indian Sign Language Research and Training Centre (ISLRTC) 

Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) 

Institute of Bioresources and Sustainable Development (IBSD) 

Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) 

Institute of Company Secretaries of India (ICSI) 

Institute of Hotel Management (IHM), Gwalior 

Institute of Hotel Management (IHM), Hajipur, Patna, Bihar 

Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) 

Inter University Accelerator Centre (IUAC) New Delhi 

Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA) 

International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS) 

Investor Education And Protection Fund Authority 

Institute of Hotel Management (IHM), Pusa, New Delhi 

Institute of Life Sciences (BBSR) 

Institute of Mathematical Sciences (IMSc), Chennai, Tamil nadu 

Institute of Physics (IOP), Bhubaneswar, Odisha 

Institute of Secretariat Training and Management (ISTM) 

Jamia Millia Islamia 

Jan-Dhan Se Jan Suraksha Portal 

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya (JNV), Gadhi, Beed, Maharashtra 

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya (JNV), Mahe, Puducherry 

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Dodballapur,Bangalore rural 

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya, Arwal, Bihar 

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya, Gadag, Karnataka 

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya, Washim, Maharashtra 

Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research (JIPMER) 

Jawaharlal Nehru Aluminium Research Development and Design Centre (JNARDDC) 

Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research (JNCASR) 

Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust 

Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) 

Joint Plant Committee (JPC) 

Kalakshetra Foundation, Chennai 

Kendriya Vidyalaya sector-22, Rohini At D-16, sector-3, Rohini, Delhi 

Kendriya Vidyalaya, Sec - 3, Rohini, Delhi 

Khadi and Village Indutries Commission (KVIC) 

Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Public Library 

Kolkata Port Trust 

Kandla Customs, Ministry of Finance, Dept. of Revenue 

Kendriya Vidyalaya No.2, Kalapet, Puducherry 

Kendriya Vidyalaya No.2, Kota, Rajasthan 

Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) 

Kendriya Vidyalaya Sector - 25, Rohini, Delhi 

Labour Bureau Comsumer Price Index 

Lady Hardinge Medical College, New Delhi 

Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education (LNIPE), Gwalior 

Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (LBSNAA) 

Lalit Kala Akademi, National Academy of Fine Art, New Delhi 

Madras Institute of Development Studies (MIDS) 

Maharsi Sandipani Rashtriya Veda Vidya Pratishtan, Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh 

Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya 

Mahatma Gandhi Institute for Rural Industrialization (MGIRI) 

Malaviya National Institute of Technology, Jaipur (MNIT) 

Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA) 

Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Institute of Asian Studies (MAKAIAS) 

Maulana Azad National Institute of Technology, Bhopal 

Medical Council of India (MCI) 

Military Engineering Service (MES) 

Morarji Desai National Institute of Yoga (MDNIY) 

Motilal Nehru National Institute of Technology (MNNIT), Allahabad 

Mumbai Port Trust 

NCC Alumni Association 

Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) 

Narmada Control Authority (NCA) 

National AIDS Research Institute (NARI), Pune 

National Academy of Customs, Indirect Taxes & Narcotics (NACIN), Faridabad 

National Academy of Indian Railways, Vadodara, Gujarat 

National Academy of Sciences 

National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies (NABCB) 

National Accreditation Board for Education and Training (NABET) 

National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories (NABL) 

National Achievement Survey (NAS) 

National Achievement Survey 2021 

National Agri-Food Biotechnology Institute (NABI), Mohali, Punjab 

National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) 

National Assessment and Accrediation Council 

National Atlas & Thematic Mapping Organisation 

National Atmospheric Research Laboratory (NARL) 

National Brain Research Centre (NBRC) 

National Capital Region Planning Board (NCRPB) 

National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR) 

National Centre for Cell Sciences (NCCS) 

National Centre for Cold-chain Development (NCCD) 

National Awards Portal 

National Bal Bhavan 

National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) 

National Board for Quality Promotion (NBQP) 

National Book Trust (NBT), India 

National Centre for Compositional Characterisation of Materials, Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) 

National Centre for Earth Science Studies (NCESS) 

National Centre for Integrated Pest Management (NCIPM) 

National Centre of Geo-Informatics 

National Civil Defence College, Nagpur 

National Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) Authority 

National Commission for Backward Classes(NCBC) 

National Commission for Minorities(NCM) 

National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) 

National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) 

National Commission for Scheduled Castes(NCSC) 

National Commission for Women (NCW) 

National Cooperative Housing Federation of India (NCHFI) 

National Council for Cement and Building Materials (NCCBM) 

National Council for Hotel Management and Catering Technology (NCHMCT) 

National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language (NCPUL) 

National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) 

National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), Western Regional Committee, Bhopal 

National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) 

National Council of Rural Institutes, Hyderabad 

National Council of Science Museums (NCSM) 

National Culture Fund (NCF) 

National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal, Haryana 

National Digital Education Architecture 

National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) 

National Dope Testing Laboratory (NDTL) 

National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) 

National Fire Service College 

National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH) 

National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA), New Delhi 

National Handicrafts and Handlooms Museum (Crafts Museum) 

National Health Systems Resource Centre (NHSRC) 

National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) 

National Industrial Corridor Development Corporation (NICDC) Limited, New Delhi 

National Institute for Empowerment of Persons with Multiple Disabilities (NIEPMD) 

National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management (MANAGE) 

National Institute of Agricultural Marketing (NIAM) 

National Institute of Animal Biotechnology (NIAB), Hyderabad, Andhra Pradesh 

National Institute of Ayurveda 

National Institute of Communication Finance (NICF) 

National Institute for Entrepreneurship and Small Business Development (NIESBUD) 

National Institute for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises 

National Institute for Research in Reproductive Health (NIRRH), Maharashtra 

National Institute for the Empowerment of Persons with Intellectual Disabilities 

National Institute for the Orthopaedically Handicapped (NIOH), Kolkata 

National Institute of Design (NID) 

National Institute of Design, Andhra Pradesh 

National Institute of Design, Assam 

National Institute of Design, Haryana 

National Institute of Design, Madhya Pradesh 

National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) 

National Institute of Electronics and Information Technology - NIELIT 

DETAILS

National Institute of Epidemiology (NIE) 

National Institute of Fashion Technology (NIFT), Head Office, New Delhi 

National Institute of Financial Management (NIFM) 

National Institute of Immunology (NII) 

National Institute of Medical Statistics Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), New Delhi 

National Institute of Naturopathy (NIN) 

National Institute of Occupational Health (NIOH), ICMR, Ahmedabad 

National Institute of Ocean Technology 

National Institute of Fisheries Post Harvest Technology and Training (NIFPHATT), Kochi, Kerala 

National Institute of Health and Family Welfare (NIHFW), New Delhi 

National Institute of High Security Animal Diseases (NIHSAD), ICAR 

National Institute of Hydrology (NIH), Roorkee 

National Institute of Immunology 

National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS) 

National Institute of Plant Genome Research, New Delhi 

National Institute of Plant Health Management (NIPHM) 

National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child Development (NIPCCD) 

National Institute of Rehabilitation Training and Research (NIRTAR) 

National Institute of Technical Teachers Training and Research (NITTTRs) 

National Institute of Technical Teachers Training and Research, Chennai 

National Institute of Technical Teachers Training and Research, Kolkata 

National Institute of Technology (NIT) 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Agartala 

National Institute of Rock Mechanics (NIRM) 

National Institute of Rural Development (NIRD) 

National Institute of Secondary Steel Technology (NISST) 

National Institute of Social Defence (NISD) 

National Institute of Solar Energy, Ministry of New and Renewable 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Arunachal Pradesh 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Delhi 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Goa 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Manipur 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Meghalaya 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Mizoram 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Nagaland 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Puducherry 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Sikkim 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Uttarakhand 

National Institute of Technology(NIT), Raipur 

National Institute of Technology, Calicut 

National Institute of Technology, Durgapur 

National Institute of Technology, Hamirpur 

National Institute of Technology, Jamshedpur 

National Institute of Technology, Karnataka Suratkal 

National Institute of Technology, Kurukshetra 

National Institute of Technology, Patna 

National Institute of Technology, Rourkela 

National Institute of Technology, Tiruchirappalli 

National Institute of Technology, Warangal 

National Institute of Tuberculosis and Respiratory Diseases 

National Institute of Unani Medicine (NIUM), Bangalore, Karnataka 

National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) 

National Institute of Virology (NIV), Pune, Maharashtra 

National Institute of Watersports (NIWS) 

National Institute of Wind Energy (NIWE), Ministry of New and Renewable Energy 

National Instructional Media Institute (NIMI) 

National Judicial Academy India 

National Jute Board 

National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) 

National Mission on Education through Information and Communication Technology (NMEICT) 

National Monuments Authority (NMA) 

National Museum Institute (NMI) 

National Pension System (NPS) Trust 

National Single Window System for Business Approvals 

National Skill Development Agency (NSDA) 

National Skill Trainers Institute (NSTI) for Women, Dakopgre Tura, West Garo Hills, Meghalaya (formerly Regional Vocational Training Institute (RVTI) for Women) 

National Skill Trainers Institute (NSTI) for Women, Mumbai, Maharashtra (formerly Regional Vocational Training Institute (RVTI) for Women) 

National Skill Trainers Institute (NSTI) for Women, Shimla, Himachal Pradesh (formerly Regional Vocational Training Institute (RVTI) for Women) 

National Small Industries Corporation Limited (NSIC) 

National Sports University, Imphal, Manipur 

National Testing Agency (NTA) 

National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), New Delhi 

National Trust for the Welfare of Persons with Autism, Cerebral Palsy, Mental Retardation and Multiple Disabilities, New Delhi 

National Power Training Institute (NPTI), Faridabad, Haryana 

National Productivity Council (NPC) 

National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) 

National School of Drama 

National Science Centre, Delhi 

National Tuberculosis Institute (NTI), Bangalore 

Nava Nalanda Mahavihara, Nalanda, Bihar 

Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS) 

Nehru Memorial Museum & Library (NMML), New Delhi 

Nehru Science Centre, Mumbai 

Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan (NYKS), Delhi 

New Mangalore Port Trust, Panambur, Mangalore, Karnataka 

North Central Zone Cultural Centre (NCZCC) 

North Eastern Hill University (NEHU), Shillong, Meghalaya 

North Eastern Indira Gandhi Regional Institute of Health and Medical Sciences (NEIGRIHMS) 

North Eastern Institute of Ayurveda and Homoeopathy (NEIAH), Shillong, Meghalaya 

North Eastern Regional Institute of Water and Land Management (NERIWALM) 

North Eastern Space Applications Centre 

North Zone Cultural Center, Sheesh Mahal, Patiala 

Ocean Science and Technology Cell (OSTC) 

OxyCare - Management Information System 

Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Institute for the Physically Handicapped (PDDUIPH) 

Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya National Academy of Social Security (PDNASS) 

Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) 

Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO) 

Pharmacy Council of India 

Pondicherry University 

Post Graduate Institute of Medical Education and Research, Chandigarh 

Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY) 

Prasar Bharati, Broadcasting Corporation of India 

Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology (RGCB) 

Rajiv Gandhi Indian Institute of Management (RGIIM), Shillong, Meghalaya 

Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Intellectual Property Management (RGNIIPM), Nagpur, Maharashtra 

Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Youth Development (RGNIYD) 

Raman Research Institute, Bangalore, Karnataka 

Press Council of India (PCI) 

Pune Branch of WIRC, The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) 

Quality Council of India 

Railway Recruitment Management System 

Raja Rammohun Roy Library Foundation (RRRLF) 

Raman Science Centre and Planetarium, Nagpur 

Rampur Raza Library 

Rashtriya Ayurveda Vidyapeeth (National Academy of Ayurveda), Ministry of AYUSH 

Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (RMK) 

Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan 

Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA) for the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi 

Regional Centre for Biotechnology (RCB) 

Regional Centre for Urban and Environmental Studies (RCUES), Osmania University, Hyderabad 

Regional Inspectorial Organisation, Shillong 

Regional Institute of Medical Sciences, Imphal, Manipur 

Regional Science Center, Bhopal 

Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI) 

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) 

Rubber Board, India 

Saha Institute of Nuclear Physics (SINP), Kolkatta 

Sahitya Akademi 

Sainik School Bhubaneswar, Odisha 

Sainik School Kapurthala, Punjab 

Sainik School Rewari, Haryana 

Salar Jung Museum, Hyderabad, Andhra Pradesh 

Sangeet Natak Akademi 

Sant Longowal Institute of Engineering and Technology (SLIET) 

Sardar Swaran Singh National Institute of Renewable Energy (SSSNIRE) 

Sardar Vallabhbhai National Institute of Technology, Surat 

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International School of Textiles & Management, Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu 

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy 

Satyajit Ray Film and Television Institute 

Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) 

Securities Appellate Tribunal, Mumbai 

Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) 

Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology (SCTIMST) 

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) 

Swami Vivekanand National Institute of Rehabilitation Training and Research (SVNIRTAR), Olatpur, Odisha 

Tariff Authority for Major Ports (TAMP) 

Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) 

Semi-Conductor Laboratory 

Society for Applied Microwave Electronic Engineering and Research (SAMEER) 

DETAILS

Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) 

DETAILS

Space Physics Laboratory (SPL), Department of Space, Govt. of India 

Spices Board, India 

Tata Memorial Centre (Hospital) (TMC) 

Tea Board of India, Kolkata, West Bengal 

Technology Information, Forecasting and Assessment Council (TIFAC) 

Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) 

Telecom Equipment and Services Export Promotion Council (TEPC), New Delhi 

Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) 

Telecommunication Engineering Centre, New Delhi 

Textiles Committee 

Tezpur University 

The Institute of Cost Accountants of India 

Town Official Language Implementation Committee 

Translational Health Science and Technology Institute (THSTI), Gurgaon, Haryana 

Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) 

Tribal Research Institute (TRI), Centres of Excellence (CoE) & Research Projects 

Tuberculosis Research Centre, Chennai 

The National Innovation Foundation (NIF) – India 

The Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology (RGIPT), Rae Bareli, Uttar Pradesh 

Thirteenth Finance Commission 

Tigernet, a directory of tigers and other wildlife mortality, National Tiger Conservation Authority 

Tobacco Board, India 

Tuticorin Port Trust 

Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) 

DETAILS

University Grants Commission (UGC) 

University of Delhi 

V. V. Giri National Labour Institute (VVGNLI) 

Vardhman Mahavir Medical College and Safdarjung Hospital, New Delhi 

Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre (VECC) 

Veterinary Council of India (VCI) 

Victoria Memorial Hall, Kolkata 

Vigyan Prasar Science Portal 

Writings and Speeches of Babasaheb DR. B.R. Ambedkar 

Zonal Cultural Centres (ZCC)

kendriya Vidyalaya No.1, Jipmer Campus, Puducherry 

Visakhapatnam Port Trust (VPT) 

Visva-Bharati, Santiniketan 

Visvesvaraya Industrial and Technological Museum, Bangalore 

Visvesvaraya National Institute of Technology (VNIT), Nagpur 

Wildlife Institute of India (WII

List of Non-Constitutional  Bodies in India which are regulatory in nature

1. RBI – Reserve Bank of India

2. SEBI – Securities and Exchange Board of India

3. IRDAI – Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India

4. PFRDA – Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority

5. NABARD – National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

6. SIDBI – Small Industries Development Bank of India

7. NHB – National Housing Bank

8. TRAI – Telecom Regulatory Authority of India

9. CBFC – Central Board of Film Certification

10. FSDC – Financial Stability and Development Council

11. FSSAI – Food Safety and Standards Authority of India

12. BIS – Bureau of Indian Standards

13. ASCI – Advertising Standards Council of India

14. BCCI – Board of Control for Cricket in India

15. AMFI – Association of Mutual Funds in India

16. EEPC – Engineering Export Promotional Council of India

17. EICI – Express Industry Council of India

18. FIEO – Federation of Indian Export Organisation

19. INSA – Indian National Shipowners’ Association

20. ICC – Indian Chemical Council

21. ISSDA – Indian Stainless Steel Development Association

22. MAIT – Manufacturers’ Association for Information Technology

23. NASSCOM – National Association of Software and Service Companies

24. OPPI – Organisation Of Plastic Processors of India

25. PEPC – Project Exports Promotion Council of India

26. PNGRB – Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board

List of Non-Constitutional  Bodies in India which are quasi-judicial in nature

1. National Human Rights Commission

2. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

3. Competition Commission of India

4. Income Tax Appellate Tribunal

5. National Company Law Tribunal

6. Appellate Tribunal for Electricity

7. Railway Claims Tribunal

8. Intellectual Property Appellate Tribunal

9. Banking Ombudsman

10. National Green Tribunal

11. Central Information Commission

12. SEBI

13. RBI

Note: ‘Quasi’ is Latin for “as if.” Quasi-Judicial bodies have a partly judicial character.

They possess the right to hold hearings and conduct investigations into disputed claims and alleged infractions of rules and regulations. They make decisions in a similar manner as courts.

Official Language Rules, 1976

The Official Languages (Use for Official Purpose of the Union)

Rules, 1976

(As amended, 1987, 2007, 2011)

Article 350: Language to be used in representations for redress of grievances

Every person shall be entitled to submit a representation for the redress of any grievance to any officer or authority of the Union or a State in any of the languages used in the Union or in the State, as the case may be.

In exercise of the powers conferred by section 8, read with sub-section (4) of section 3 of the Official Languages Act, 1963 (19 of 163), the Central Government hereby makes the following rules, namely: 

1.  Short title, extent and commencement - 

i. These rules may be called the Official Languages (use for Official Purposes of the Union) rules, 1976. 

ii. They shall extend to the whole of India, except the State of Tamil Nadu.

iii. They shall come into force on the date of their publication in the Official Gazette.

2. Definitions - In these rules, unless the context otherwise requires - 

a. Act means the Official Languages Act, 1963 (19 of 1963): 

b. Central Government Office includes - 

i. any Ministry, Department or Office of the Central Government 

ii. any Office of a Commission, Committee or Tribunal appointed by the Central Government and 

iii. any Office of a corporation or company owned or controled by the Central Governemtn:

c. Employee menas any person employed in a Central Government Office: 

d. Notified Office means an office notified under sub-rule(4) of rule 10;

e. Proficiency in Hindi means proficiency in Hindi as described in rule 9;

f. Region A means the States of Bihar, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Uttarakhand, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh and The Union Territories of Delhi and Andaman and Nicobar Islands

g. Region B means the states of Gujarat, Maharashtra and Punjab and the Union Territory of Chandigarh, Daman and Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli;

h. Region C means the States and the Union Territories other than those referred to in clauses (f) and (g);

i. working knowledge of hindi means working knowledge of Hindi as described in rule 10.

3. Communications to States etc. other than to Central Government Offices: - 

i. Communcations from a Central Government office to a State or a UT in Region A or to any office (not being a Central Government office) or person in such State or UT shall, save in exceptional cases, be in Hindi, and if any communication is issued to any of them in English it shall be accompained by a Hindi translation thereof. 

ii. Communications from a Central Government office: - 

a. to a State or UT in Region B or to any Office (not being a Central Government office) in such State or UT shall ordinarily be in Hindi and if any communication is issued to any of them in English, it shall be accompanied by a Hindi translation thereof:

Provided that if any such State or UT desires the communications of any particular class or category or those intended for any of its offices, to be sent for a period specified by the Government of the State or Union Territory concerned, in English, or in Hindi with a translation in the other language, such communication shall be sent in that manner;

b. to any person in a State or UT of Region B may be either in Hindi or English.

iii. Communications from a Central Government office to State or UT in Region C or to any office (not being a Central Government office) or person in such State shall be in English.

iv. Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-rules(1) and (2), communications from a central government office in region C to a state or UT of Region A or Region B or to any office (not being a Central Government office) or person in such State may be either in Hindi or in English. 

Provided that communications in Hindi shall be in such proportion as the Central Government may, having regard to the number of persons having working knowledge of Hindi in such offices, the facilties for sending communications in Hindi and matters incidental thereto determine from time to time. 

4. Communications between Central Government Offices communications: 

a. Between one Ministry / Dept of the Central Government and another may be in Hindi or in English

b. Between one Ministry / Dept of the Central Government and attached or subordinate offices situated in Region A shall be in Hindi and in such proportion as the Central Government may, having regard to the number of persons having a working knowledge of Hindi insuch offices, the facilities for sending communicatios in HIndi and matters incidental thereto, determine from time to time;

c. Between Central Government offices situated in Region A other than those specified in clause (a) or clause (b) shall be in Hindi.

d. Between Central Government offices situated in Region A and offices in Region B or Region C may be in Hindi or in English

Provided that these communications shall be in Hindi in such proportion as the Central Government may having regard to the number of persons having working knowledge of Hindi in such offices, the facilities for sending communications in Hindi and matters incidental thereto, determine from time to time. 

e. Between Central Government offices situated in Region B or Region C may be in Hindi or English

Provided that these communications shall be in Hindi in such proportion as the Central Government may, having regard to the number of persons having working knowledge of Hindi in such offices, the facilities for sending communications in Hindi and matters incidental thereto, determine from time to time;

Provided that a translation of such communication in the other language shall: - 

i. Where that communication is addressed to an office in Region A or Region B be provided, if necessary, at the receiving end;

ii. where the communication is addressed to an office in Region C be provided along with such communication:

Provided further that no such translation in the other language shall be required to be provided if the communication is addressed to a notified office.

5. Replies to communications received in Hindi: - Notwithstanding anything contained rules 3 and 4, communications from a Central Government office in reply to communications in Hindi shall be in Hindi

6. Use of both Hindi and English: - 

Both Hindi and English shall be used for all documents referred to in sub-section (3) of section 3 of the Act and it shall be the responsibility of the persons signing such documents to ensure that such documents are made, executed or issued both in Hindi and in English.

7. Application, representations etc. -

• 1. An employee may submit an application, appeal or representation in Hindi or in English.

  2. Any Application, appeal or representation referred to in sub-rule (1) when made or signed in Hindi, shall be replied to in Hindi.

  3. Where an employee desires any order or notice relating to service matters (including disciplinary proceedings) required to be served on him to be in Hindi, or as the case may be, in English, it shall be given to him in that language without undue delay.

8. Noting in Central Government offices-

• 1. an employee may record a note or minute on a file in Hindi or in English without being himself required to furnish a translation thereof in the other language.

  2. No Central Government employee possessing a working knowledge of Hindi may ask for an English translation of any document in Hindi except in the case of documents of legal or technical nature.

  3. If any question arises as to whether a particular document is of a legal or technical nature, it shall be decided by the Head of the Department or office.

  4. Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-rule (1), the Central Government may, by order specify the notified offices where Hindi alone shall be used for noting, drafting and for such other official purposes as may be specified in the order by employees who possess proficiency in Hindi.

9. Proficiency in Hindi -
An employee shall be deemed to possess proficiency in Hindi if:-

a. he has passed the Matriculation or any equivalent or higher examination with Hindi as the medium of examination ; or

b. he has taken Hindi as an elective subject in the degree examination or any other examination equivalent to or higher than the degree examination; or

c. he declares himself to possess proficiency in Hindi in the form annexed to these rules.

10. Working knowledge of Hindi-

• 1. An employee shall be deemed to have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi -

If he has passed -

a. the Matriculation or an equivalent or higher examination with Hindi as one of the subjects ; or

b. the Pragya examination conducted under the Hindi Teaching Scheme of the Central Government or when so specified by that Government in respect of any particular category of posts, any lower examination under that Scheme ; or

c. any other examination specified in that behalf by the Central Government; or

i. if he declares himself to have acquired such knowledge in the form annexed to these rules.

ii. The Staff of a Central Government office shall ordinarily be deemed to have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi if eighty per cent of the Staff working therein have acquired such knowledge.

iii. The Central Government or any officer specified in this behalf by the Central Government may determine whether the staff of a Central Government office has acquired a working knowledge of Hindi.

iv. The names of the Central Government offices, the staff whereof have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi, shall be notified in the Official Gazette:

Provided that the Central Government may if it is of opinion that the percentage of the staff working in a notified office and having a working knowledge of Hindi has gone below the percentage specified in sub-rule (2) from any date, it may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare that the said office shall cease to be a notified office from that date.

11. Manuals, Codes, other procedural literature, articles of Stationery, etc.-

a. All manuals, codes and other procedural literature relating to Central Government offices shall be printed or cyclostyled, as the case may be, and published both in Hindi and English in diglot form.

b. The forms and headings of registers used in any Central Government office shall be in Hindi and in English.

c. All name-plates, sign-boards, letter-heads and inscriptions on envelopes and other items of stationery written, printed or inscribed for use in any Central Government office, shall be in Hindi and in English:

Provided that the Central Government may, if it is considered necessary to do by general or special order exempt any Central Government office from all or any of the provisions of this rule.

12. Responsibility for compliance-

a. It shall be the responsibility of the administrative head of each Central Government office-

• • 1. to ensure that the provisions of the Act and these rules and directions issued under Rule (2) are properly complied with ; and

    2. to devise suitable and effective check-point for this purpose.

b. The Central Government may from time to time issue such directions to its employees and offices as may be necessary for the due compliance of the provisions of the Act and these rules.

Section 10 in the Official Languages (use for Official Purposes of the Union) Rules, 1976

1. An employee shall be deemed to have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi

(a) if he has passed: 

(i) The Matriculation or an equivalent or higher examination with Hindi as one of the subjects or

(ii) the Pragya examination conducted under the Hindi Teaching Scheme of the Central Government or when so specified by that Government in respect of any particular category of posts, any lower examination under that scheme or 

(iii) any other examination specified on that behalf by the Central Government

(b) if he declares himself to have acquired such knowledge in the form annexed to these rules.

(2) The staff of a central govenrment office shall ordinarily be deemed to have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi if 80 % of the Staff working therein have acquired such knowledge. 

(3) The Central Government or any officer specified in this behalf by the Central Government may determine whether the sraff of a Central Government office has acquired a working knowledge of Hindi.

(4) The names of the Central Government offices, the staff whereof have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi, shall be notified in the Official Gazetter: Provided that the Central Government may if it is of opinion that the percentage of the staff working in a notified office and having working knowledge of Hindi has gone below the percentage specified in sub-rule (2) from any date, it may, by notification in the Official Gazette declare that the said office shall cease to be notified office from that date. 

FOREWARD

The Official Language Resolution dated 18th January, 1968 as adopted by both the Houses

of Parliament states:

“This House resolves that a more intensive and comprehensive programme shall be

prepared and implemented by the Government of India for accelerating the spread and

development of Hindi and its progressive use for various official purposes of the Union and

an Annual Assessment Report giving details of the measures taken and the progress

achieved shall be laid on the Table of both Houses of Parliament and sent to all State

Governments.”

It is in consonance with the provisions of the said Resolution that an Annual

Programme for the promotion and progressive use of the Official Language Hindi is

prepared by Department of Official Language every year for implementation by the Central

Government Offices. The Annual Programme for the year 2021-22 is being issued in the

same context. The demarcation of States/Union Territories of the country into three

Regions has been done on the basis of the extent to which Hindi is spoken and written in

the given Region. The details of three Regions viz. A, B and C as follows:

Region A - States of Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand and National Capital Territory of Delhi and Andaman & Nicobar Islands Union Territory.

Region B - States of Gujarat, Maharashtra and Punjab and Union Territories of Chandigarh, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli. 

Region - C: All other States or Union Territories not included in the „A‟ and „B‟ Regions 

The use of Hindi in the Government Offices has increased but substantial business is still being done in English. The objective of Official Language policy is that normally Hindi be used in all Government business to the maximum extent possible. This will be in keeping with the spirit of the Constitution. Needless to say that doing official work in the people's language will speed-up development and bring transparency in administration.

 In the present era, no language can survive without being associated with Information and Communication Technology (ICT).It is evident that due to availability of Information Technology facilities including computers, e-mail and websites in the Central Government Offices it has become easier to maximize the usage of Hindi in Scientific and Technical subjects. 

The following points in the Annual Programme need to be paid utmost attention:- 

1. It is necessary that Presidential Orders issued on all the nine volumes of the Report of the Committee of Parliament on Official Language be complied with by the Central Government Offices. 

2. Necessary steps should be taken to get Scientific and Technical literature prepared in Hindi by the concerned Departments and made available for the use of public. 

3. Hindi language / Hindi Typing/ Stenography training may be expedited and all concerned should be trained. 

4. Central Government Offices should regularly nominate their employees to the different training programmes of the Department of Official Language and direct them to be present in the classes regularly and to complete training with sincerity and write the examination. Any instance of discontinuing training or not writing the examination should be severely dealt with. 

5. Central Hindi Training Institute imparts 6 weeks (30 working days) training programme to the Officers of Central Secretariat Official Language Service at the time of promotion. 

6. Central Government Offices should at their training institutes for Central Services make arrangements for training in Rajbhasha Hindi at par with the level of arrangements at Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration, Mussoorie. They should prepare literature on their subjects in Hindi so that after training the officers/employees may be able to carry out their work in Hindi easily. In all the training programmes of the Central Govt., targets for imparting training through Hindi medium compulsorily, have been fixed for the region A,B,C in this Annual Programme. Necessary guidelines are required to be issued to the respective training centers for compliance in this regard. 

7. All the Officials should be acquainted with the Official Language Policy by conducting workshops so that they may discharge their responsibilities effectively. 

8. Central Government Offices should organize seminars relating to their subjects in Hindi medium. 

9. Periodic Official Language Inspections of the Central Government Offices should be conducted by concerned officers and the Senior Officers (DS/Dir./JS) of Department of Official Language. 

10. A Joint Town Official Language Implementation Committees (TOLIC) Website has been created by the Department of Official Language for TOLICs working all over the country (http//narakas.rajbhasha.gov.in). This website is totally free of cost. All the TOLICs can share data (information) related to their TOLICs on this website. The objective of formation of TOLICs is to provide a joint forum for encouraging the use of Official Language in the Central Government Offices across the country and for removing the difficulties being faced in the implementation of the Official Language Policy. In this forum, the members of TOLIC can improve the level of their achievements through deliberations and exchange the information about the best practices adopted by them for increasing the use of Hindi. In a year, two meetings of the committee are to be organized. The Administrative Heads of the Central Government Offices located in the particular town are required to personally attend the meetings of the committee. Under Rule 12 of the Official Languages Rules, 1976, Administrative Head has been entrusted with the responsibility for the implementation of the Official Language Policy of the Union and compliance of the orders issued by Department of Official Language in this regard from time-to-time. Officers of the Department of the Official Language (Hqrs)/ Regional Implementation Offices attend these meetings. The TOLIC which performs the best in increasing the use of Official Language as per the norms fixed by the Department of the Official Language is awarded with “Rajbhasha Kirti Puraskar” at National level and “Rajbhasha Puraskar” at Regional level. In order to conduct the proceedings properly, checklist of the relevant points to be considered in the meetings of the TOLIC is provided at the time of formation of the TOLIC.

11. The Quarterly Progress Report should be sent to the Department of Official Language online within 30 days from the completion of the quarter. Similarly, Annual Assessment Report should also be made available by 30th June. All Central Government Offices are required to send Quarterly Progress Report and Annual Assessment Report online only. The system is available at the Department‟s website www.rajbhasha.gov.in. 

12. Ministries/Departments have to ensure constitution/re-constitution of Hindi Advisory Committees at the earliest and ensure holding of their meetings regularly. In these meetings, the checklist of important points provided by the Department of Official Language for the consideration of the members should be kept in view. This checklist is available on the website of the Department of Official Language at www.rajbhasha.gov.in. Decisions taken in the meetings must be implemented. 

13. The Policy of the Govt. with regard to the propagation and spread of the Official Language is that the use of Hindi as Official Language may be increased with motivation, encouragement and goodwill. At the same time, the Rules and Orders should be strictly complied with. In this context it may be mentioned here that under Rule 12 of the Official Language Rules, 1976 it is the responsibility of the Administrative Head of each Central Govt. office to ensure that the directions issued under the O.L. Act and O.L. Rules are adequately complied with. If an officer or Employee knowingly (deliberately) contravenes the provisions regarding the Official Language, action may be taken on the basis of the contravention of the rules and orders relating to the case. 

14. The advertisements published by the Central Government Offices in English/Regional Languages shall mandatorily be published in Hindi also. In the Hindi newspapers, advertisement should be given in Hindi only and in English newspapers these should be only in English. When advertisements are given in English newspapers, then at the end of the advertisement, it should be invariably mentioned that the Hindi version of the Notification/Advertisement/Vacancy related circular is available on the website with complete link. 

15. Central Government Offices should ensure that all the computers have Unicode installed on them so that official work in Hindi is done on them easily and smoothly. 

16. Under the able guidance and inspirational leadership of Hon’ble Prime Minister – Shri Narendra Modiji and Hon’ble Home Minister – Shri Amit Shahji, Department of Official Language (DoL), Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), has transformed Covid challenge into an opportunity taking the following initiatives: (i) Inspired by our Official Language Policy and Mnemonics used byHon‟ble Prime Minister, a "12 प्र" framework and strategy has been crafted whose pillars are: 

-प्रेरणा (Inspiration and Motivation) - 

-प्रोत्साहन (Encouragement) 

- प्रेम (Love and affection) 

- प्राइज़अर्थातपुरस्कथर (Rewards) 

- प्रशिक्षण (Training) 

- प्रयोग (Usage) 

- प्रचार (Advocacy) 

- प्रसार (Transmission) 

- प्रबंधन(Administration and Management) 

- प्रमोिन (पदोन्नतत) (Promotion) 

- प्रशिबद्धिा (Commitment)

- प्रयास(Efforts) 

The above framework is used by Officers of DoL while participating in various Rajbhasha meetings and workshops organized in different Ministries / Departments / Central Public Sector Undertakings / National Banks and Town Official Language Implementation Committee(TOLIC) meetings. 

(ii) The two Training Institutes of DoL – Central Hindi Training Institute (CHTI) and Central Translation Bureau (CTB) have started to impart lessons in Hindi language / Hindi typing / Hindi stenography / Hindi translation through electronic platforms (etraining). 

(iii) Regional Implementation Offices (RIOs) of DoL have started virtual inspections through digital platforms (e-inspection). 

(iv) Hindi workshops and Town Official Language Implementation Committee (TOLIC) meetings are being held through Information and Communication Technology (ICT)tools (e-meetings). 

(v) Launched the e-Patrika Pustakalaya Platform at www.rajbhasha.gov.in, the official website of DoL to facilitate seamless and hassle free reading of In-house magazines of various Central Government Organizations. 

(vi) Inspired by Hon'ble Prime Minister's clarion call of Self Reliant India - ‘Be Vocal for Local’, DoL is leaving no stone unturned to make the indigenous memory based computer application (made in technical collaboration with CDAC, Pune; (MeitY) ) - 'Kantasth' more popular and broad based in various Government Organizations. Efforts are also being made to bring in more uniformity and excellence in this application through healthy competition and giving away prizes. 

(vii) Efforts are also being made to improve upon 'Lila Rajbhasha' and 'Lila Pravah' in collaboration with Central Hindi Institute (CHI) of Ministry of Education and C-DAC, Pune. 

(viii) Expanding the number of TOLICs in India and abroad with plan to set up TOLIC in Port Louis (Mauritius); Durban (South Africa); Port of Spain (Trinidad and Tobago); Dubai (United Arab Emirates); and London (United Kingdom). 

The Department of Official Language seeks whole-hearted voluntary support of all Ministries/Departments, Offices, Public Sector Banks and Undertakings etc. in providing greater impetus to Hindi in their day to day work, consistent with the Constitutional and statutory obligations casted upon each one of us and the targets indicated in this Annual Programme for the year 2021-22. 

IMPORTANT DIRECTIONS REGARDING OFFICIAL  LANGUAGE POLICY 

1. Under Section 3(3) of the Official Language Act, 1963, Resolutions, General Orders, Rules, Notifications, Administrative or Other Reports, Press Communiqués, Administrative and Other Reports and Official Papers to be laid before a House or Houses of Parliament, Contracts, Agreements, Licenses, Permits, Tender Notices and Forms of Tender should invariably be issued bilingually (Hindi-English). Under Rule 6 of the Official Language Rules, 1976, it shall be the responsibility of the persons signing such documents to ensure that such documents are made, executed or issued both in Hindi and in English. 

2. As per Rule 5 of Official Language Rules, 1976, communications received in Hindi are to be replied in Hindi only by the Central Government Offices. 

3. Under Rule 10(4) of Official Language Rules, 1976, the Central Government Offices are required to notify the names of the offices in the Official Gazette, wherein 80% of the staff have acquired working knowledge of Hindi. 

4. Rule 8 (4) of the Official Language Rules, 1976, requires the Central Government Offices to issue orders for the employees of the notified offices who have proficiency in Hindi to work only in Hindi for noting, drafting and for such other official purposes as specified in the order. 

5. As per Rule 11 of the Official Language Rules, 1976, all manuals, codes and Non Statutory procedural literature, the forms and headings of registers, name plates, sign boards, letter heads and inscriptions on envelopes and other items of stationary shall also be in Hindi and English (in diglot format). Accordingly, the Central Government Offices are required to send all manuals, codes and other procedural literature relating to Non-Statutory procedural literature to Central Translation Bureau for translation. 

6. Rule 12 of the Official Language Rules, 1976, requires the Administrative Head of each Central Government Office to ensure that the provisions of the Official Language Act, Official Language Rules and directions issued there under are properly complied with and to devise suitable and effective check points for this purpose. 

7. The answers of question papers, except that of the compulsory paper of English, should also be allowed to be written in Hindi in recruitment examinations of subordinate services and such question papers should be made available both in Hindi and English. In interview or oral test, the candidates may be allowed the option to answer in Hindi. 

8. The candidates should have the option to answer the question papers of all in-service, departmental and promotion examinations (including All India Level Examinations) conducted by the Central Government Offices, in Hindi. The question papers should compulsorily be set in both the languages, Hindi and English. In interviews, the candidates may be allowed to answer the questions in Hindi. 

9. Scientists etc. should be motivated and encouraged to read their research papers in the Official Language Hindi in all the scientific/technical seminars and discussions etc. Research papers should relate to the main subjects of the Ministry/ Department and Office concerned. 

10. Every type of training, whether of long-term or of short term, generally be imparted through Hindi medium in „A‟ and „B‟ Regions. To impart training in „C‟ Region, the training material be prepared both in Hindi and English and made available to the trainees in Hindi or English as per their requirements. 

11. So long as the prescribed targets regarding Hindi typists and Hindi stenographers are not achieved in the Central Govt. offices, only Hindi typists and Hindi stenographers should be recruited. 

12. International Treaties and Agreements should invariably be prepared both in Hindi as well as in English. There should be authentic translation of Treaties and Agreements entered into in other countries and they should be kept on file for record. 

13. The following items of work should be done in Hindi in the branches of the banks notified under Rule 10 (4) of the Official Language Rules, 1976:- Applications filled by customers in Hindi and Demand Drafts issued on applications filled in English with the consent of the customer, Payment Order, Credit Card, Debit Card, all kinds of lists, returns, fixed deposit receipts, communications etc. regarding cheque-book, entries in daily Ledger, Muster Roll, Dispatch Book, Pass Book, entries in Log Book, work relating to priority areas, security and customer services, opening of new accounts, writing addresses on envelopes, work relating to travelling allowance, leave, provident fund, house building advance, documents related to medical facilities for the employees, agenda and minutes of the meetings. 

14. In non-Hindi speaking States, respective Regional Language, Hindi and English should be used in this order for boards, sign boards, name plates and directional indicators. 

15. Officers/ employees associated with translation work and implementation of Official Language Policy may be nominated for compulsory Translation Training in the Central Translation Bureau. Officers/ employees having knowledge of Hindi and English both at degree level whose services are likely to be utilized for translation work by the office may also be nominated for translation training. 

16. Translators should be helped out with aids like standard dictionaries (English-Hindi, Hindi-English) and other technical literature and glossaries. 

17. The officers of IAS and other All India Services are imparted compulsory training in Hindi during their training in Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration, Mussoorie so that they could make use of it in official work. However, most of the officers do not use Hindi in their official work after joining the service. As such, officials/employees working under them do not get the right message. Consequently, Hindi is not used in official work to the extent required. It is the Constitutional obligation on senior officers of the Central Government Offices to make progressive use of Hindi in their official work. This in turn will motivate the officials/employees working under them, thereby giving impetus to the compliance of the Official Language Policy. 

18. All the Central Government Offices should at their training institutes for Central Services, make arrangements for training in Rajbhasha Hindi, at par with the level of arrangements at Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration, Mussoorie and prepare literature on their subjects in Hindi so that after training the officers/employees may be able to carry out their work in Official Language Hindi easily. All the training programmes should be prepared in audio-visual form through the use of multimedia projectors, laptops etc. 

19. All the Central Government Offices should widely promote and propagate the various incentive schemes in their Offices in order to accelerate the use of Hindi, so that maximum numbers of officials/employees are benefited by these schemes and Hindi is increasingly used in official work. 

20. To overcome the difficulties faced by various offices in doing the official work in Hindi, new guidelines have come into effect forthwith to organize Hindi workshops. According to new guidelines, the duration of workshop should be- minimum one working day. Minimum two third of the time of workshop shall be devoted to the actual practice of doing the official work in Hindi on the subjects related to that office. 

21. The officers/employees handling Hindi work including training and workshops should also be provided good and sufficient space and other necessary facilities to sit in the office to facilitate them to discharge their duties properly. 

22. All the Central Government Offices should encourage writing of original books in Hindi on subjects concerned and take necessary steps to enrich their Departmental Glossaries. 

23. Emphasis should be given on the use of popular words in our routine work so that citizens have an access to Government Policies/Programmes in simple Hindi language. 

24. Hindi magazines are being published by the Central Government Offices to generate working environment in Hindi. General activities and original articles pertaining to the particular office should be published in these magazines. Main provisions of Official Language Policy may also be mentioned in these magazines. The Central Government Offices are required to bring out e-version of these magazines and to upload them on the ‘e-PatrikaPustakalaya’ platform provided by the Department of Official Language at their website: www.rajbhasha.gov.into facilitate smooth and easy access of the In-house magazines to the readers. 

25. The Central Government Offices should have the facility of Unicode on computers so that work on computers may be done in Hindi also. 

26. It has been noticed that in the website of many Departments, information in Hindi is not being provided or in some cases it is not available completely in Hindi. Website should therefore be developed and updated in Hindi regularly. 

27. The Official Language Cadre should be constituted in the Offices / Undertakings / Banks etc. and it should be in conformity with the total posts. The Hindi officers of the subordinate offices of the Ministries / Departments should be given the same pay scale and designation as the Central Secretariat Official Language Service Cadre. 

28. The Department of Official Language, every year conducts Basic Computer Training Programmes in Hindi through Central Hindi Training Institute and the duration of each programme is five days. Maximum number of officers/employees may be nominated for these training programmes. Trainees will be able to work in Hindi on computer after completion of the training programme. Details of the programmes may be seen at the website of the Central Hindi Training Institute at www.chti-rajbhasha.gov.in. 

29. The Central Government Offices may organize Hindi Seminars. 

30. No Non-Governmental Organization has been authorized to impart training of Official Language to the employees of Central Government Offices by the Department of Official Language, Ministry of Home Affairs. Sufficient numbers of training centers across the country are functioning under the Department of Official Language and they impart various types of training to the officers and employees of the Central Government free of cost and they also organize workshops for deliberations on Official Language. As per the directions of Department of Official Language, all the Central Government Offices organize workshops for encouraging the use of Official Language in their respective offices. Besides English, the facility of imparting online training of Hindi language through 14 Indian languages is available on the website of Department of Official Language. Thus, it is not appropriate to incur infructuous expenditure from 10 the Government exchequer for participation in Official Language training and workshops organized by such NGOs. 

31. The Department of Official Language bestows the ‘Rajbhasha Gaurav Puraskar’ with an objective to encourage writing books originally in Hindi in various streams of contemporary knowledge/science and to promote use of official language Hindi. 'Rajbhasha Kirti Puraskar' are given by the Department of Official Language to Ministry/ Department, Public Sector Undertakings, Boards/Autonomous Bodies/Trusts etc., Nationalized banks, Town Official Language Implementation Committees and inhouse Hindi Magazines which register significant progress in the use of Official Language. Information about these two award schemes is available at the website of Department of Official of Language www.rajbhasha.gov.in 

32. The Department of Official Language, in its website, has provided the links of various institutions through which one can see the glossary of those institutions. If any office has prepared its own glossary, it may be shared with this Department so that others may also take advantage of it. 

33. Hindi translation of the generally used English sentences has been provided by the Department of Official Language on its website under the heading 'E-Saral Hindi Vakyakosh' so that officers may write noting in Hindi on files easily by using them. 

34. On the demand of Central Government offices, Central Hindi Training Institute imparts training for Hindi language, Hindi typing and Hindi Stenography through video conferencing also. Similar arrangements have also been made by Central Translation Bureau for imparting training to translators. 

35. The Department of Official Language has reiterated the suggestions given by the Hon‟ble Prime Minister in the minutes of the 31st meeting of the Central Hindi Committee – bridging the gap between Official Hindi and the Hindi used by the public; taking measures to further enrich Hindi through other languages of the country; assimilating better words in Hindi from other languages; adding ten good words from each of the other Indian languages into Hindi; ensuring simple translation in Hindi in order to make the official language not a hindrance but a help in the propagation of Hindi. 

36. Department of Official Language, Ministry of Home Affairs, has recently requested all Secretaries to Government of India / Heads of various Government Organizations that when they chair their senior officers' meeting every month they should also review the progress of Government work in Hindi and discuss about the implementation of various provisions of Official Language Act and Rules in their organization. Also the Joint Secretary (Administration) / Administrative Head in the Organization should be entrusted with the responsibility of implementation of official work in Hindi and chair the Official Language Implementation Committee meeting every quarter of the year. 

✅ Q1. The term "public authority" under the RTI Act, 2005 does not include which one of the following?

Options:

(a) National Human Rights Commission

(b) Lokayukta of Delhi

(c) A non-Government Organization receiving substantial grant from the Government

(d) Trustees of PM CARES Fund

✅ Correct Answer: (d) Trustees of PM CARES Fund

Reasoning:

The RTI Act defines "public authority" as bodies constituted by the Constitution, laws, or government control/funding. Although PM CARES is promoted by the government, it is a registered public charitable trust and has been claimed to be outside the purview of RTI. Courts and the government have taken the stance that it is not a public authority under RTI.

✅ Q2. Who has the right to information under the RTI Act, 2005?

Options:

(a) All individuals in India including the foreigners residing in India

(b) All individuals in India, agencies of the State and the foreigners residing in India

(c) All citizens of India

(d) All agencies of the State

✅ Correct Answer: (c) All citizens of India

Reasoning:

Section 3 of the RTI Act says:

"Subject to the provisions of this Act, all citizens shall have the right to information."

It does not extend this right to foreigners or state agencies.

✅ Q3. The obligation of a public authority under the RTI Act, 2005 does not include which of the following?

Options:

(a) Publication of all relevant facts while formulating important policies

(b) Providing reasons for its administrative decisions to affected persons

(c) Publication of relevant facts while announcing decisions affecting the public

(d) Providing information regarding commercial confidence to an applicant except in case of larger public interest

✅ Correct Answer: (b) Providing reasons for its administrative decisions to affected persons

Reasoning:

RTI promotes transparency, but the law does not explicitly require authorities to justify every administrative decision to the person affected. Hence, (b) is not a statutory obligation.

✅ Q4. "Right to information" under the RTI Act, 2005 does not include which of the following?

Options:

(a) Inspection of official documents

(b) Obtaining information relating to Border Roads Development Board

(c) Taking notes from the official files

(d) Taking certified copy of a decision of the Court

✅ Correct Answer: (d) Taking certified copy of a decision of the Court

Reasoning (Corrected):

Under Section 2(j), the RTI includes taking notes, inspecting files, etc. But certified copies of court decisions are available under court rules, not RTI.

This was clarified by the Supreme Court (e.g., CIC v. High Court of Gujarat case, 2020). So this is not included under RTI, making (d) the correct choice.

✅ Q5. "Competent authority" under the RTI Act, 2005 does not mean which of the following?

Options:

(a) Chief Minister of Delhi

(b) Speaker in case of Legislative Assembly of Delhi

(c) Chairman in case of Legislative Council of Uttar Pradesh

(d) Vice-President of India in case of Council of States

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Chief Minister of Delhi

Reasoning:

As per Section 2(e) of the RTI Act, "competent authority" includes:

President (for Union)

Governor (for State)

Speaker (Legislative Assembly)

Chairman (Legislative Council)

Chief Justice (for judiciary)

Chief Minister is not listed, so (a) is correct.

✅ Q6. "Information" under the RTI Act, 2005 does not include which of the following?

Options:

(a) Records as defined under the Act

(b) Any information relating to a private body which cannot be accessed by a public authority

(c) Reports of Commissions of Inquiry

(d) Data material held in any electronic form

✅ Correct Answer: (b) Any information relating to a private body which cannot be accessed by a public authority

Reasoning:

RTI Act covers information held by or accessible to public authorities.

Private body data not accessible to public authority is outside RTI’s scope. So (b) is correct.

✅ Q7. Which one of the following countries topped the Henley Passport Index in 2021 for the third consecutive year?

Options:

(a) Japan

(b) Singapore

(c) South Korea

(d) Syria

✅ Correct Answer: (a) Japan

Reasoning:

According to the Henley Passport Index 2021, Japan ranked #1 for the third year in a row, offering visa-free/visa-on-arrival access to the most destinations globally.

Question 8

The 51st edition of International Film Festival of India (IFFI) was held from 16 January to 24 January 2021 in

(a) Mumbai

(b) Goa

(c) Hyderabad

(d) Chennai

✅ Answer: (b) Goa

Explanation: The 51st IFFI was held in Goa, maintaining its traditional venue. The event was held from January 16 to 24, 2021, after being postponed due to COVID-19.

Question 9

Khelo India Ice Hockey Tournament was organised in

(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Kashmir

(c) Ladakh

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

✅ Answer: (c) Ladakh

Explanation: The first-ever Khelo India Ice Hockey Tournament was held in Chiktan, Kargil (Ladakh), under the Khelo India initiative.

Question 10

Who has been named winner of the prestigious 2021 Michael and Sheila Held Prize along with two others for solving long-standing questions on the Kadison-Singer problem and on Ramanujan graphs?

(a) Nirupam Srivastava

(b) Anil Srivastava

(c) Anirudh Srivastava

(d) Nikhil Srivastava

✅ Answer: (d) Nikhil Srivastava

Explanation: Nikhil Srivastava, along with Adam Marcus and Daniel Spielman, won the Michael and Sheila Held Prize in 2021 for work on the Kadison-Singer problem and Ramanujan graphs.

Question 11

World Braille Day is observed globally on

(a) 4th January

(b) 7th February

(c) 4th March

(d) 7th April

✅ Answer: (a) 4th January

Explanation: World Braille Day is observed on January 4th to commemorate the birth of Louis Braille, the inventor of the Braille system.

Question 12

In India, the National Girl Child Day (NGCD) is observed annually on

(a) 24th January

(b) 27th February

(c) 24th March

(d) 27th April

✅ Answer: (a) 24th January

Explanation: National Girl Child Day is celebrated on January 24 every year to raise awareness about the rights of girls in India.

Question 13

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Untouchability has been abolished in India.

(b) In India practising untouchability is an offence.

(c) The Civil Rights Protection Act, 1955 deals with untouchability.

(d) The offence of untouchability is punishable by law made by the legislature of a State.

✅ Answer: (d) The offence of untouchability is punishable by law made by the legislature of a State.

Explanation: This is not correct because laws abolishing untouchability are made by Parliament, not by individual State legislatures. Article 17 of the Constitution abolishes untouchability and empowers the Central government to make laws on it.

Question 14

According to the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not prohibited?

(a) Conferment of a military title by the State

(b) An Indian citizen accepting any title from a foreign State

(c) An individual, who is not a citizen of India but holding an office of profit in India, accepting a title from a foreign State after informing the President of India

(d) An individual holding an office of trust under the State, accepting any present without informing the Government of India

✅ Answer: (c) An individual, who is not a citizen of India but holding an office of profit in India, accepting a title from a foreign State after informing the President of India

Explanation: Article 18 of the Indian Constitution prohibits Indian citizens from accepting titles from foreign states. However, non-citizens can accept titles with permission. So, option (c) is not prohibited.

Question 15

The citizens of India do not have which one of the following fundamental rights?

(a) Right to reside and settle in any part of India

(b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property

(c) Right to practice any profession

(d) Right to form an association

✅ Answer: (b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property

Explanation: This was once a fundamental right under Article 31, but it was removed by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978. It is now a legal right under Article 300A.

Question 16