SR

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=vgZr0lRBEGg&pp=ygUgcHJvZml0IGFuZCBsb3NzIGJ5IGFkaXR5YSByYW5qYW4%3D

🔹 1. Synonyms (Choose the word closest in meaning)

1.1 Recalcitrant

a) Obedient
b) Passive
c) Aggressive
d) Uncooperative
✅ Answer: d) Uncooperative

1.2 Obfuscate

a) Enlighten
b) Confuse
c) Simplify
d) Reveal
✅ Answer: b) Confuse

1.3 Ubiquitous

a) Scarce
b) Common
c) Present everywhere
d) Temporary
✅ Answer: c) Present everywhere

1.4 Parsimonious

a) Generous
b) Miserly
c) Humble
d) Proud
✅ Answer: b) Miserly

1.5 Insidious

a) Transparent
b) Harmless
c) Subtly harmful
d) Honest
✅ Answer: c) Subtly harmful

🔹 2. Antonyms (Choose the word opposite in meaning)

2.1 Tenacious

a) Yielding
b) Firm
c) Durable
d) Tough
✅ Answer: a) Yielding

2.2 Vindicate

a) Justify
b) Defend
c) Accuse
d) Forgive
✅ Answer: c) Accuse

2.3 Ephemeral

a) Eternal
b) Brief
c) Instant
d) Vague
✅ Answer: a) Eternal

2.4 Pragmatic

a) Strategic
b) Practical
c) Realistic
d) Idealistic
✅ Answer: d) Idealistic

2.5 Euphoria

a) Misery
b) Happiness
c) Pleasure
d) Excitement
✅ Answer: a) Misery

🔹 3. Reading Comprehension (Based on passage)

Passage:

In a world driven by data, every digital interaction becomes a form of currency. People are tracked across platforms not only for commercial purposes but also to predict social behavior. The ethical implications of this are vast. While convenience is often cited as a benefit of data use, few realize the growing control algorithms exert over our lives. Awareness and regulation are essential if individual autonomy is to be preserved in the digital age.

3.1 What is the central concern of the passage?

a) Decline in online engagement
b) Dangers of algorithmic control
c) Lack of Internet connectivity
d) Rise in social activism
✅ Answer: b) Dangers of algorithmic control

3.2 According to the passage, data is:

a) Meaningless unless sold
b) A modern commodity
c) Not useful for governments
d) Primarily a privacy tool
✅ Answer: b) A modern commodity

3.3 What does the author suggest is necessary for preserving autonomy?

a) Technological innovation
b) Strict surveillance
c) Awareness and regulation
d) Mass data collection
✅ Answer: c) Awareness and regulation

3.4 The tone of the author can best be described as:

a) Sarcastic
b) Concerned
c) Indifferent
d) Humorous
✅ Answer: b) Concerned

3.5 The term “tracked across platforms” implies:

a) Data is deleted
b) Identity is protected
c) Activities are monitored
d) Access is restricted
✅ Answer: c) Activities are monitored

🔹 4. Jumbled Sentences (Choose the correct sequence)

4.1

A. The system collapsed
B. Without warning
C. Leaving everyone shocked
D. And confused
a) B-A-C-D
b) A-B-D-C
c) A-B-C-D
d) B-D-A-C
✅ Answer: c) A-B-C-D

4.2

A. He took a deep breath
B. And stepped onto the stage
C. His hands trembled
D. With nervous anticipation
a) A-D-C-B
b) C-A-D-B
c) A-C-D-B
d) C-D-A-B
✅ Answer: a) A-D-C-B

4.3

A. The judge entered
B. As silence filled the room
C. Wearing a stern expression
D. And took his seat
a) A-C-D-B
b) B-A-C-D
c) A-B-C-D
d) A-C-B-D
✅ Answer: d) A-C-B-D

4.4

A. Climate change is real
B. And it affects everyone
C. Including future generations
D. Unless steps are taken
a) A-B-C-D
b) D-C-B-A
c) A-D-B-C
d) A-B-D-C
✅ Answer: a) A-B-C-D

4.5

A. She submitted her paper
B. With great confidence
C. After months of research
D. And waited for results
a) C-A-B-D
b) A-C-B-D
c) C-B-A-D
d) A-B-C-D
✅ Answer: a) C-A-B-D

🔹 5. Narration (Direct–Indirect Speech)

5.1 He said, “I am working on the project.”

a) He said that he had worked on the project.
b) He said that he was working on the project.
c) He said he works on the project.
d) He said he is working on the project.
✅ Answer: b) He said that he was working on the project.

5.2 She said to him, “Did you complete the task?”

a) She asked him if he completed the task.
b) She asked him had he completed the task.
c) She asked him if he had completed the task.
d) She asked to him if he had completed the task.
✅ Answer: c) She asked him if he had completed the task.

5.3 They said, “We will attend the meeting.”

a) They said that they would attend the meeting.
b) They said they attend the meeting.
c) They said they will attend the meeting.
d) They said that they should attend the meeting.
✅ Answer: a) They said that they would attend the meeting.

5.4 The teacher said, “Do not talk in class.”

a) The teacher ordered to not talk in class.
b) The teacher said not to talk in class.
c) The teacher advised to talk in class.
d) The teacher told them not to talk in class.
✅ Answer: d) The teacher told them not to talk in class.

5.5 He said, “Alas! My friend has failed.”

a) He exclaimed that his friend failed.
b) He exclaimed sorrowfully that his friend had failed.
c) He said that his friend had failed.
d) He was sorry that his friend failed.
✅ Answer: b) He exclaimed sorrowfully that his friend had failed.

🔹 6. Voice (Active–Passive Voice)

6.1 They are building a new bridge.

a) A new bridge is built.
b) A new bridge is being built.
c) A new bridge was being built.
d) A new bridge is building.
✅ Answer: b) A new bridge is being built.

6.2 Did he complete the work?

a) Was the work completed by him?
b) Is the work completed by him?
c) Had the work been completed by him?
d) Has the work been completed by him?
✅ Answer: a) Was the work completed by him?

6.3 The Prime Minister inaugurated the project.

a) The project was inaugurated by the Prime Minister.
b) The Prime Minister has inaugurated the project.
c) The project is being inaugurated.
d) The Prime Minister inaugurates the project.
✅ Answer: a) The project was inaugurated by the Prime Minister.

6.4 Let him handle the situation.

a) Let the situation be handled by him.
b) Let the situation handled by him.
c) The situation let be handled.
d) Let the handling of the situation be done.
✅ Answer: a) Let the situation be handled by him.

6.5 She was writing a letter.

a) A letter had been written by her.
b) A letter was written by her.
c) A letter is being written by her.
d) A letter was being written by her.
✅ Answer: d) A letter was being written by her.

🔹 7. Idioms and Phrases (Choose the correct meaning)

7.1 To cut corners

a) To decorate something
b) To avoid unnecessary steps
c) To do something cheaply or carelessly
d) To take a long route
✅ Answer: c) To do something cheaply or carelessly

7.2 Spill the beans

a) Waste food
b) Reveal a secret
c) Cook too much
d) Lose control
✅ Answer: b) Reveal a secret

7.3 Hit the nail on the head

a) Get hurt
b) Be precise
c) Make a mistake
d) Break something
✅ Answer: b) Be precise

7.4 Cry over spilt milk

a) Waste food
b) Be emotional
c) Complain over something that can't be undone
d) Clean a mess
✅ Answer: c) Complain over something that can't be undone

7.5 Jump the gun

a) React too quickly
b) Celebrate too early
c) Get promoted
d) Be delayed
✅ Answer: a) React too quickly

🏛️ History (Modern India Focus)

1. Which of the following was the primary reason behind the Surat Split in 1907?

a) Clash between extremists and moderates over the method of agitation
b) Demand for separate electorates
c) Launch of Swadeshi Movement
d) Formation of Muslim League

✅ Answer: a) Clash between extremists and moderates over the method of agitation
Explanation: The split occurred due to ideological differences. Extremists like Tilak demanded aggressive methods, while moderates like Gokhale preferred constitutional means.

2. Which of the following revolts is associated with the slogan "Raj karega Khalsa"?

a) Santhal Rebellion
b) Wahabi Movement
c) Kuka Movement
d) Moplah Rebellion

✅ Answer: c) Kuka Movement
Explanation: The Kuka or Namdhari Movement used this Sikh slogan as a call for freedom and religious reform.

3. Who among the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission (1946)?

a) Lord Pethick-Lawrence
b) Sir Stafford Cripps
c) A.V. Alexander
d) Lord Mountbatten

✅ Answer: d) Lord Mountbatten
Explanation: Mountbatten was not part of the Cabinet Mission; he came later as the last Viceroy.

4. The term “Drain of Wealth” was first used by:

a) R.C. Dutt
b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
c) Dadabhai Naoroji
d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

✅ Answer: c) Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation: In his book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, he elaborated on how British rule drained Indian resources.

5. The Indian National Army (INA) trial was held at:

a) Bombay High Court
b) Red Fort, Delhi
c) Lahore High Court
d) Allahabad High Court

✅ Answer: b) Red Fort, Delhi
Explanation: The INA trials, particularly of Shah Nawaz Khan, Sehgal, and Dhillon, were held at the Red Fort and evoked massive nationalistic sentiments.

📜 Polity

1. Which of the following is a feature of the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act?

a) Gave primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
b) Restored FRs taken away during the Emergency
c) Abolished Article 370
d) Introduced anti-defection law

✅ Answer: b) Restored FRs taken away during the Emergency
Explanation: The 44th CAA reversed many changes made by the 42nd Amendment and protected civil liberties.

2. Which of the following Articles is related to freedom of trade, commerce, and intercourse?

a) Article 301
b) Article 19(1)(g)
c) Article 21
d) Article 304

✅ Answer: a) Article 301
Explanation: It guarantees the freedom of trade and commerce across India.

3. Which of the following is a non-justiciable right?

a) Right to Education
b) Right against Exploitation
c) Equal Pay for Equal Work
d) Right to Freedom of Religion

✅ Answer: c) Equal Pay for Equal Work
Explanation: It is a Directive Principle and not enforceable in court, although courts have interpreted it in many rulings.

4. The power of judicial review in India is derived from:

a) The Supreme Court's inherent powers
b) Article 32 and Article 226
c) Article 368
d) Article 143

✅ Answer: b) Article 32 and Article 226
Explanation: These Articles empower the Supreme Court and High Courts to issue writs and ensure protection of FRs.

5. Who decides the disqualification of Members of Parliament under the Tenth Schedule?

a) President
b) Election Commission
c) Supreme Court
d) Speaker/Chairman of the House

✅ Answer: d) Speaker/Chairman of the House
Explanation: As per the Tenth Schedule, the presiding officer decides disqualification under anti-defection law.

🌍 Geography

1. Which of the following statements regarding the Indian Monsoon is correct?

a) Western Ghats receive more rainfall on the eastern side
b) Retreating monsoon is responsible for heavy rainfall in the Himalayas
c) Tamil Nadu receives most of its rainfall from the northeast monsoon
d) Southwest monsoon is dry and cold

✅ Answer: c) Tamil Nadu receives most of its rainfall from the northeast monsoon
Explanation: Tamil Nadu lies in the rain shadow region during the southwest monsoon and gets rainfall from retreating (northeast) monsoon.

2. The Doldrums are located:

a) Around 30° latitude
b) At the Equator
c) Around 60° latitude
d) At the poles

✅ Answer: b) At the Equator
Explanation: Doldrums are low-pressure zones with calm winds near the Equator, known for minimal horizontal air movement.

3. Which of the following rivers forms an estuary?

a) Godavari
b) Ganga
c) Narmada
d) Yamuna

✅ Answer: c) Narmada
Explanation: Narmada, flowing westward into the Arabian Sea, forms an estuary rather than a delta.

4. Which is the correct sequence of the following states in terms of decreasing forest cover (area-wise)?

a) Madhya Pradesh > Arunachal Pradesh > Chhattisgarh > Odisha
b) Madhya Pradesh > Chhattisgarh > Odisha > Arunachal Pradesh
c) Arunachal Pradesh > Madhya Pradesh > Chhattisgarh > Odisha
d) Odisha > Madhya Pradesh > Arunachal Pradesh > Chhattisgarh

✅ Answer: a) Madhya Pradesh > Arunachal Pradesh > Chhattisgarh > Odisha
Explanation: According to FSI reports, Madhya Pradesh has the highest forest area, followed by Arunachal Pradesh.

5. The type of rock most commonly associated with petroleum reservoirs is:

a) Basalt
b) Granite
c) Sandstone
d) Marble

✅ Answer: c) Sandstone
Explanation: Porous sedimentary rocks like sandstone are ideal for storing hydrocarbons.

📊 Economics

1. The ‘base effect’ in inflation refers to:

a) Impact of taxation on inflation
b) Comparison of current inflation with a very low base year index
c) Influence of demand-side policies
d) Supply-side inflationary pressure

✅ Answer: b) Comparison of current inflation with a very low base year index
Explanation: If the previous year's base index was low, even a small price increase now can show high inflation.

2. Which of the following taxes is progressive in nature?

a) Excise duty
b) GST
c) Personal income tax
d) Custom duty

✅ Answer: c) Personal income tax
Explanation: A progressive tax increases with income, hence taxing higher income groups more.

3. In India, bond yield inversion refers to a situation where:

a) Short-term interest rates fall below long-term rates
b) Long-term bonds give lower returns than short-term bonds
c) Repo rate is higher than reverse repo
d) GDP growth is higher than inflation

✅ Answer: b) Long-term bonds give lower returns than short-term bonds
Explanation: This signals negative investor sentiment or expectations of a recession.

4. Which of the following is not a component of the capital account in the Balance of Payments?

a) FDI
b) ECB
c) Portfolio investment
d) Invisible exports

✅ Answer: d) Invisible exports
Explanation: Invisible exports (services) are part of the current account, not capital account.

5. The term ‘stagflation’ refers to:

a) High inflation with high growth
b) Low inflation with low unemployment
c) High inflation and high unemployment
d) Recession with deflation

✅ Answer: c) High inflation and high unemployment
Explanation: Stagflation is a paradoxical situation where the economy faces stagnant growth and rising prices.

🌿 Botany

1. Which plant hormone promotes seed dormancy?

a) Auxin
b) Cytokinin
c) Abscisic acid
d) Ethylene

✅ Answer: c) Abscisic acid
Explanation: ABA induces dormancy and inhibits germination, helping seeds survive in unfavorable conditions.

2. C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants because:

a) They store more water
b) They have higher chlorophyll
c) They prevent photorespiration
d) They have more mitochondria

✅ Answer: c) They prevent photorespiration
Explanation: C4 plants spatially separate CO₂ fixation, reducing losses due to photorespiration, especially in hot, dry climates.

3. Mycorrhizae help plants in:

a) Water loss prevention
b) Nitrogen fixation
c) Phosphorus absorption
d) Leaf expansion

✅ Answer: c) Phosphorus absorption
Explanation: Mycorrhizal fungi enhance phosphorus uptake, increasing plant growth in nutrient-poor soils.

4. In dicot roots, vascular bundles are:

a) Conjoint, collateral
b) Scattered
c) Radial and exarch
d) Concentric

✅ Answer: c) Radial and exarch
Explanation: In dicot roots, xylem and phloem are arranged separately on different radii, with xylem developing from the outside (exarch).

5. Which of the following is a non-endospermic seed?

a) Wheat
b) Castor
c) Gram
d) Maize

✅ Answer: c) Gram
Explanation: In gram, the endosperm is absorbed during development, making it a non-endospermic seed.

🐾 Zoology

1. Which of the following is not a connective tissue?

a) Cartilage
b) Blood
c) Tendon
d) Skin

✅ Answer: d) Skin
Explanation: Skin is an organ made up of epithelial, connective, and other tissues. It is not solely connective.

2. Which hormone is not secreted by the anterior pituitary?

a) FSH
b) LH
c) Oxytocin
d) Prolactin

✅ Answer: c) Oxytocin
Explanation: Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary, not the anterior.

3. Which of the following is an example of adaptive radiation?

a) Evolution of Homo sapiens
b) Evolution of Darwin’s finches
c) Development of insect wings
d) Evolution of horse limbs

✅ Answer: b) Evolution of Darwin’s finches
Explanation: Finches on the Galapagos Islands evolved different beak types from a common ancestor due to environmental adaptation.

4. Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness?

a) Vitamin B1
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin A
d) Vitamin D

✅ Answer: c) Vitamin A
Explanation: Vitamin A is essential for the synthesis of rhodopsin, crucial for vision in low light.

5. Which is a characteristic of mammals only?

a) Three-chambered heart
b) Gills during embryonic development
c) External fertilization
d) Mammary glands

✅ Answer: d) Mammary glands
Explanation: Mammals are uniquely defined by the presence of mammary glands for nurturing their young.

🔬 Physics

1. Which of the following phenomena confirms the wave nature of electrons?

a) Compton effect
b) Zeeman effect
c) Photoelectric effect
d) Electron diffraction

✅ Answer: d) Electron diffraction
Explanation: Diffraction is a wave property; electron diffraction confirms electrons have wave nature.

2. The dimensional formula of Planck’s constant (h) is:

a) [ML²T⁻²]
b) [MLT⁻¹]
c) [ML²T⁻¹]
d) [MLT⁻²]

✅ Answer: c) [ML²T⁻¹]
Explanation: Planck’s constant relates energy (ML²T⁻²) and frequency (T⁻¹), resulting in [ML²T⁻¹].

3. A transformer works on:

a) DC supply
b) Magnetic repulsion
c) Mutual induction
d) Electric induction

✅ Answer: c) Mutual induction
Explanation: A transformer uses mutual induction between coils to change voltage levels in AC circuits.

4. What is the escape velocity from Earth?

a) 7.9 km/s
b) 9.8 km/s
c) 11.2 km/s
d) 12.6 km/s

✅ Answer: c) 11.2 km/s
Explanation: The escape velocity is the speed required to overcome Earth’s gravity without propulsion—approximately 11.2 km/s.

5. Which particle has the least mass?

a) Proton
b) Neutron
c) Electron
d) Alpha particle

✅ Answer: c) Electron
Explanation: Electron has a mass nearly 1/1836 that of a proton.

🧪 Chemistry

1. Which compound is most acidic?

a) Ethanol
b) Acetic acid
c) Phenol
d) Water

✅ Answer: b) Acetic acid
Explanation: Due to its carboxylic group, acetic acid is a stronger acid than phenol or ethanol.

2. Which gas is produced when zinc reacts with dilute sulfuric acid?

a) Oxygen
b) Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon dioxide

✅ Answer: b) Hydrogen
Explanation: Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂↑

3. Which of the following is a non-electrolyte?

a) NaCl
b) HCl
c) Glucose
d) NH₄OH

✅ Answer: c) Glucose
Explanation: Glucose does not dissociate into ions in water; hence, it cannot conduct electricity.

4. The correct order of atomic size is:

a) O > N > F
b) F > O > N
c) N > O > F
d) O > F > N

✅ Answer: c) N > O > F
Explanation: Across a period, atomic size decreases with increasing nuclear charge.

5. Which metal does not react with cold water but reacts with steam?

a) Potassium
b) Calcium
c) Magnesium
d) Iron

✅ Answer: d) Iron
Explanation: Iron reacts with steam to form Fe₃O₄ and H₂, but not with cold water.

📰 Current Affairs (Past 6 Months) (as of April 2025)

1. Who was appointed as the new Chief Election Commissioner in March 2025?

a) Rajiv Kumar
b) Gyanesh Kumar
c) Sushil Chandra
d) Arun Goel

✅ Answer: b) Gyanesh Kumar
Explanation: He was appointed following Rajiv Kumar’s retirement.

2. India recently signed a historic trade agreement with which grouping in 2025?

a) SAARC
b) GCC
c) EFTA
d) QUAD

✅ Answer: c) EFTA
Explanation: India signed a major FTA with the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) for investment and market access.

3. Which Indian city hosted the Women's T20 World Cup 2024 Final?

a) Bengaluru
b) Mumbai
c) Ahmedabad
d) Chennai

✅ Answer: c) Ahmedabad
Explanation: The Narendra Modi Stadium in Ahmedabad hosted the final.

4. The RBI launched a pilot project in March 2025 to integrate:

a) UPI and blockchain
b) CBDC and international remittances
c) Bharat BillPay and NEFT
d) Aadhaar and UPI

✅ Answer: b) CBDC and international remittances
Explanation: RBI began testing cross-border CBDC transactions with select countries.

5. India’s first indigenous mRNA vaccine was launched for which disease?

a) Tuberculosis
b) Dengue
c) COVID-19
d) Malaria

✅ Answer: d) Malaria
Explanation: India launched its first mRNA-based malaria vaccine candidate in early 2025.

Comprehension Passage (Advanced Level)

In recent decades, the concept of sustainable development has transcended academic discourse and permeated policymaking, yet its practical realization remains riddled with paradoxes. The principle emphasizes balancing economic growth with environmental preservation and social equity, but global trends suggest a persistent skew in favor of profit-centric models. Nations, particularly developing ones, often justify ecologically detrimental practices as necessary evils to spur industrialization and alleviate poverty. However, such arguments rarely account for long-term ecological degradation, which, ironically, disproportionately affects the very populations these practices aim to uplift.

The discourse is further complicated by geopolitical dynamics. Developed countries, historically responsible for a substantial share of greenhouse emissions, now advocate stringent environmental norms, often overlooking the developmental aspirations of the Global South. This hypocrisy exacerbates mistrust and stalls collective action. Moreover, international frameworks, though ambitious, often lack enforceability and are marred by tokenism.

True sustainability requires a paradigm shift—not merely policy adjustments but a transformation in societal values. It necessitates decoupling human progress from relentless consumption and redefining prosperity in qualitative rather than quantitative terms. Until this occurs, the rhetoric of sustainability risks remaining a façade—appeasing global conscience while perpetuating systemic exploitation.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. What is the main paradox presented in the passage?
A. Developed nations suffer more from ecological damage.
B. Economic growth always leads to social equity.
C. Sustainable development is discussed widely but poorly implemented.
D. Environmental laws are universally enforced.

Answer: C
Explanation: The passage highlights how sustainable development is frequently discussed but not truly realized in practice.

2. Why does the author criticize developed countries?
A. They fund projects in the Global South.
B. They reject environmental treaties.
C. They enforce fair climate regulations.
D. They promote norms without acknowledging their past emissions.

Answer: D
Explanation: The passage criticizes developed countries for ignoring their historical emissions while imposing norms on developing nations.

3. What does the author suggest is essential for real sustainability?
A. Rapid industrialization
B. Reduction in population
C. A shift in societal values
D. Technological innovation only

Answer: C
Explanation: The author emphasizes a deep change in values, moving away from material consumption toward qualitative growth.

1. Choose the word that is closest in meaning to: "Obfuscate"

A. Clarify
B. Illuminate
C. Confuse
D. Reveal

Answer: C. Confuse
Explanation:
"Obfuscate" means to deliberately make something unclear or difficult to understand; hence, "confuse" is the closest synonym.

2. Choose the synonym of: "Pernicious"

A. Harmless
B. Beneficial
C. Deadly
D. Innocent

Answer: C. Deadly
Explanation:
"Pernicious" refers to something that is harmful or fatal in a subtle or gradual way.

3. Choose the synonym of: "Recalcitrant"

A. Obedient
B. Compliant
C. Uncooperative
D. Submissive

Answer: C. Uncooperative
Explanation:
"Recalcitrant" describes someone who resists authority or control—hence, "uncooperative" fits best.

4. Choose the word closest in meaning to: "Ephemeral"

A. Lasting
B. Permanent
C. Temporary
D. Infinite

Answer: C. Temporary
Explanation:
"Ephemeral" means lasting for a very short time—so "temporary" is the correct synonym.

5. Choose the synonym of: "Impetuous"

A. Cautious
B. Rash
C. Thoughtful
D. Hesitant

Answer: B. Rash
Explanation:
"Impetuous" refers to someone acting without thought—"rash" carries the same idea of reckless haste.

1. Choose the antonym of: "Ubiquitous"

A. Rare
B. Present
C. Universal
D. Pervasive

Answer: A. Rare
Explanation:
"Ubiquitous" means present everywhere or widespread. Its opposite is something that is rarely found or uncommon—hence, "rare."

2. Choose the antonym of: "Munificent"

A. Generous
B. Lavish
C. Stingy
D. Wealthy

Answer: C. Stingy
Explanation:
"Munificent" refers to someone who is very generous, especially with money. "Stingy" is its antonym, meaning miserly or unwilling to give.

3. Choose the antonym of: "Reverence"

A. Veneration
B. Disrespect
C. Worship
D. Devotion

Answer: B. Disrespect
Explanation:
"Reverence" means deep respect or admiration. "Disrespect" is its direct opposite.

4. Choose the antonym of: "Prolific"

A. Fruitful
B. Barren
C. Creative
D. Fertile

Answer: B. Barren
Explanation:
"Prolific" refers to producing abundantly (e.g., ideas, offspring, works). The opposite is "barren," meaning unproductive or infertile.

5. Choose the antonym of: "Belligerent"

A. Aggressive
B. Hostile
C. Peaceful
D. Combative

Answer: C. Peaceful
Explanation:
"Belligerent" means aggressive or warlike. The opposite would be calm and non-confrontational—hence, "peaceful."

**1. She said, "I had been working on the project since morning."

Choose the correct indirect narration.**
A. She said that she was working on the project since morning.
B. She said that she had worked on the project since morning.
C. She said that she had been working on the project since morning.
D. She said that she had been working on the project from morning.

Answer: C. She said that she had been working on the project since morning.
Explanation:
Past perfect continuous tense remains unchanged in indirect speech when the reporting verb is in the past.

**2. He said to me, "Do you know the way to the station?"

Choose the correct indirect narration.**
A. He asked me did I know the way to the station.
B. He asked me whether I knew the way to the station.
C. He told me if I know the way to the station.
D. He asked me that did I know the way to the station.

Answer: B. He asked me whether I knew the way to the station.
Explanation:
Yes/No questions in reported speech use "if" or "whether" + subject + verb.

**3. "Don’t touch the wires," the electrician warned us.

Choose the correct indirect narration.**
A. The electrician warned us not to touch the wires.
B. The electrician warned us to not touch the wires.
C. The electrician warned us don’t touch the wires.
D. The electrician said us not to touch the wires.

Answer: A. The electrician warned us not to touch the wires.
Explanation:
Imperatives are reported using "to" + verb, and negative imperatives use "not to" + verb.

**4. He said, "Alas! I failed the exam."

Choose the correct indirect narration.**
A. He said with joy that he had failed the exam.
B. He exclaimed with grief that he had failed the exam.
C. He exclaimed that he has failed the exam.
D. He exclaimed with sorrow that he failed the exam.

Answer: B. He exclaimed with grief that he had failed the exam.
Explanation:
"Alas!" is an exclamation of sorrow, so use "exclaimed with grief" and change the tense appropriately.

**5. She said, "Will you come to the party?"

Choose the correct indirect narration.**
A. She asked me will I come to the party.
B. She asked me whether I will come to the party.
C. She asked me whether I would come to the party.
D. She told me whether I would come to the party.

Answer: C. She asked me whether I would come to the party.
Explanation:
"Will" becomes "would" in indirect speech when the reporting verb is in the past. Use "asked" for interrogative sentences.

✅ A. Voice Change (Active–Passive Voice) – 5 MCQs

1. The jury found him guilty of theft.

Choose the correct passive voice:
A. He was found guilty of theft by the jury.
B. He is found guilty of theft by the jury.
C. He has been found guilty of theft by the jury.
D. He had found guilty of theft by the jury.

Answer: A. He was found guilty of theft by the jury.
Explanation:
Past simple in active changes to past simple in passive. Structure: was/were + past participle.

2. They will have completed the bridge by next year.

A. The bridge will have completed by them by next year.
B. The bridge would have been completed by them by next year.
C. The bridge will have been completed by them by next year.
D. The bridge will be completed by them by next year.

Answer: C. The bridge will have been completed by them by next year.
Explanation:
Future perfect tense in passive: will have been + past participle.

3. Someone is painting the door.

A. The door is painted.
B. The door has been painting.
C. The door is being painted.
D. The door is being paint.

Answer: C. The door is being painted.
Explanation:
Present continuous passive = is/are being + past participle.

4. We must respect the national flag.

A. The national flag must be respected.
B. The national flag must respected.
C. The national flag must be respect.
D. The national flag is respected.

Answer: A. The national flag must be respected.
Explanation:
Modal + be + past participle = Passive form of modals.

5. Did she complete the assignment?

A. Was the assignment completed by her?
B. Is the assignment completed by her?
C. Has the assignment been completed by her?
D. Had the assignment been completed by her?

Answer: A. Was the assignment completed by her?
Explanation:
Simple past question in passive = Was/Were + past participle.

✅ B. Jumbled Sentences – 5 MCQs

Choose the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

**1. P: To work efficiently

Q: Is essential
R: In any organization
S: Team spirit**
A. SRQP
B. QPSR
C. SPRQ
D. SQRP

Answer: A. SRQP
Explanation:
S (Team spirit) → R (in any organization) → Q (is essential) → P (to work efficiently)

**2. P: She lost her way

Q: She was new to the city
R: Because
S: And it was late at night**
A. QSRP
B. RPQS
C. RQPS
D. QRPS

Answer: C. RQPS
Explanation:
R (Because) → Q (she was new...) → P (She lost her way) → S (and it was late...)

**3. P: Is no longer a luxury

Q: In the modern world
R: But a necessity
S: Computer education**
A. SRPQ
B. SPRQ
C. QSPR
D. SRQP

Answer: A. SRPQ
Explanation:
S (Computer education) → R (but a necessity) comes at end → Sequence is S R P Q

**4. P: When he reached the station

Q: To his disappointment
R: He found that the train
S: Had already left**
A. PQRS
B. PRSQ
C. QPRS
D. PQSR

Answer: A. PQRS
Explanation:
Chronological sequence: P (when he reached...) → Q (to his disappointment) → R (he found...) → S (had already left)

**5. P: The teacher asked

Q: If he had done his homework
R: The boy replied
S: That he had forgotten**
A. PRSQ
B. PQRS
C. PSRQ
D. PRQS

Answer: A. PRSQ
Explanation:
P (The teacher asked) → R (The boy replied) → S (That he had forgotten) → Q (if he had...)

✅ Idioms and Phrases – 5 MCQs

1. Idiom: "To throw down the gauntlet"

What does it mean?

A. To accept defeat
B. To fight with someone
C. To issue a challenge
D. To make peace

Answer: C. To issue a challenge
Explanation:
This idiom originates from medieval times when knights threw down their gauntlets (gloves) to challenge others to a duel. It means to challenge someone boldly.

2. Idiom: "To eat humble pie"

What does it mean?

A. To be modest after being proven wrong
B. To enjoy food
C. To criticize someone
D. To remain hungry

Answer: A. To be modest after being proven wrong
Explanation:
“To eat humble pie” means to admit your mistake and apologize with humility.

3. Idiom: "To burn the candle at both ends"

What does it mean?

A. To waste money
B. To work early in the morning and late at night
C. To light both sides of a candle
D. To enjoy luxuries

Answer: B. To work early in the morning and late at night
Explanation:
This idiom means overworking or using one’s energy or resources too quickly, usually by working long hours.

4. Idiom: "To bell the cat"

What does it mean?

A. To take a risk for the benefit of others
B. To talk unnecessarily
C. To alert everyone of danger
D. To follow the leader blindly

Answer: A. To take a risk for the benefit of others
Explanation:
It refers to doing a dangerous or difficult task that benefits a group, like putting a bell on a cat so mice can hear it coming.

5. Idiom: "A storm in a teacup"

What does it mean?

A. A dangerous situation
B. A major issue that affects all
C. A big fuss over a small matter
D. A very small problem solved easily

Answer: C. A big fuss over a small matter
Explanation:
This idiom means getting overly upset or agitated about something minor or trivial.

✅ Vedic Era – 5 Advanced MCQs

1. Which of the following Rigvedic rivers was referred to as the "Nadītamā" (the best of rivers)?

A. Sarasvati
B. Sindhu
C. Yamuna
D. Ganga

Answer: A. Sarasvati
Explanation:
In the Rigveda, Sarasvati is praised as the Nadītamā, meaning the most important or best river. It is mentioned more frequently than even the Indus (Sindhu).

2. In the Vedic period, the term 'Krishna Ayas' referred to:

A. Black cotton soil
B. Black iron or wrought iron
C. Dark-skinned people
D. A sacred symbol

Answer: B. Black iron or wrought iron
Explanation:
‘Krishna Ayas’ in Vedic literature is believed to mean black metal, which is interpreted as iron, while ‘Shyama Ayas’ may also refer to copper or bronze.

3. Which of the following Vedic texts contains references to agriculture, ploughing, and irrigation?

A. Aitareya Brahmana
B. Taittiriya Samhita
C. Rigveda
D. Atharvaveda

Answer: D. Atharvaveda
Explanation:
The Atharvaveda contains practical knowledge, including references to agriculture, such as ploughing, seeds, and pest control.

4. The term ‘Rajan’ in the early Vedic polity primarily denoted:

A. An emperor
B. A tribal chieftain
C. A spiritual leader
D. A tax collector

Answer: B. A tribal chieftain
Explanation:
In the early Vedic period, the Rajan was the head of a tribe, not a monarch in the later sense. His power was limited by assemblies like sabha and samiti.

5. The Purushasukta hymn of the Rigveda is significant because it:

A. Describes warfare techniques
B. Refers to the migration of Aryans
C. Mentions the origin of the four varnas
D. Advocates monotheism

Answer: C. Mentions the origin of the four varnas
Explanation:
The Purushasukta (Rigveda X.90) describes how Brahmana, Kshatriya, Vaishya, and Shudra emerged from different parts of Purusha's body—forming the basis of the varna system.

✅ Ancient Indian History – 5 MCQs with Answers

1. Which of the following archaeological sites is associated with both the Harappan and later Vedic cultures?

A. Kalibangan
B. Mehrgarh
C. Hastinapur
D. Bhagwanpura

Answer: D. Bhagwanpura
Explanation:
Bhagwanpura (Haryana) is a unique site showing continuity from Late Harappan to Painted Grey Ware (PGW) culture, often linked with the Vedic period.

2. The famous Gayatri Mantra is found in which Mandala of the Rigveda?

A. First Mandala
B. Third Mandala
C. Fifth Mandala
D. Ninth Mandala

Answer: B. Third Mandala
Explanation:
The Gayatri Mantra is addressed to Savitr and appears in Mandala 3, Hymn 62, Verse 10 of the Rigveda.

3. Who among the following was the first Indian ruler to organize a regular army and set up a standing army system?

A. Chandragupta Maurya
B. Ashoka
C. Harshavardhana
D. Samudragupta

Answer: A. Chandragupta Maurya
Explanation:
Chandragupta Maurya, with the help of Kautilya (Chanakya), organized a large standing army, which was described by Megasthenes in Indica.

4. In which language was the Ashokan inscription at Kandahar written?

A. Sanskrit and Prakrit
B. Aramaic and Greek
C. Pali and Brahmi
D. Prakrit and Kharosthi

Answer: B. Aramaic and Greek
Explanation:
The Kandahar inscription reflects Ashoka’s bilingual message to the Greek-speaking and Aramaic-speaking people of Afghanistan.

5. The concept of Trimurti in ancient Indian religious texts refers to:

A. Three sacred rivers
B. Three kings of the solar dynasty
C. Three Vedas
D. Trinity of Brahma, Vishnu, and Shiva

Answer: D. Trinity of Brahma, Vishnu, and Shiva
Explanation:
The Trimurti concept evolved during the Gupta period—symbolizing the roles of creation (Brahma), preservation (Vishnu), and destruction (Shiva).

✅ Modern Indian History – 5 MCQs with Answers

1. Who among the following was associated with the journal “Indian Sociologist” which advocated Indian independence from British rule?

A. Dadabhai Naoroji
B. Shyamji Krishna Varma
C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
D. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Answer: B. Shyamji Krishna Varma
Explanation:
Shyamji Krishna Varma founded the India House in London and published the journal “The Indian Sociologist” to inspire revolution and demand complete independence.

2. The Poona Pact of 1932 was signed between:

A. Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin
B. B.R. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi
C. Jawaharlal Nehru and Muhammad Ali Jinnah
D. Subhas Chandra Bose and C. Rajagopalachari

Answer: B. B.R. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation:
The Poona Pact was signed to resolve the dispute over separate electorates for Depressed Classes, replacing it with reserved seats within the general electorate.

3. The term “Drain of Wealth” was first used by:

A. Mahadev Govind Ranade
B. R.C. Dutt
C. Dadabhai Naoroji
D. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Answer: C. Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation:
Dadabhai Naoroji’s book “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India” introduced the theory of Drain of Wealth, highlighting economic exploitation by the British.

4. Which revolutionary leader was the founder of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA)?

A. Bhagat Singh
B. Sachindra Nath Sanyal
C. Ram Prasad Bismil
D. Chandrashekhar Azad

Answer: C. Ram Prasad Bismil
Explanation:
The HSRA was a reorganization of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA), and Ram Prasad Bismil was its original founder in 1924.

5. Who called the 1857 Revolt “neither first, nor national, nor a war of independence”?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Sir John Seeley
C. V.D. Savarkar
D. R.C. Majumdar

Answer: D. R.C. Majumdar
Explanation:
Historian R.C. Majumdar disagreed with the nationalist interpretation of 1857 as a war of independence, calling it limited in scope and leadership.

✅ Medieval Indian History – 5 MCQs with Answers

1. Who among the following Delhi Sultans introduced the practice of Sijda and Paibos (prostration and kissing the feet)?

A. Alauddin Khalji
B. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
C. Balban
D. Muhammad bin Tughlaq

Answer: C. Balban
Explanation:
Ghiyasuddin Balban introduced Sijda and Paibos to enhance the majesty of the monarchy, drawing inspiration from Persian court traditions and asserting divine kingship.

2. The battle of Talikota in 1565 led to the downfall of which of the following empires?

A. Bahmani Sultanate
B. Vijayanagara Empire
C. Mughal Empire
D. Maratha Confederacy

Answer: B. Vijayanagara Empire
Explanation:
The Battle of Talikota (1565) was fought between the Deccan Sultanates and the Vijayanagara Empire, resulting in the collapse of Vijayanagara power under Rama Raya.

3. Which Mughal emperor issued the Mazhar (Declaration of Faith), asserting his authority over Islamic scholars?

A. Humayun
B. Jahangir
C. Shah Jahan
D. Akbar

Answer: D. Akbar
Explanation:
In 1579, Akbar issued the Mazhar, declaring himself the final arbiter in religious matters, thus reducing the influence of the Ulema and establishing his own syncretic belief system (Din-i Ilahi).

4. Who among the following historians wrote Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi, a key source for the Delhi Sultanate?

A. Ziauddin Barani
B. Amir Khusrau
C. Ibn Battuta
D. Minhaj-i-Siraj

Answer: A. Ziauddin Barani
Explanation:
Barani authored Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi, a major historical work detailing events during the reigns of rulers like Alauddin Khalji and Muhammad bin Tughlaq.

5. The Mansabdari system was introduced by which Mughal ruler to organize the military and bureaucracy?

A. Babur
B. Akbar
C. Jahangir
D. Aurangzeb

Answer: B. Akbar
Explanation:
Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system, classifying officials into ranks (mansabs) and regulating military-civil administration, a crucial reform in centralization.

✅ Geography – 5 Advanced MCQs with Answers

1. Which of the following is the correct sequence of Himalayan ranges from south to north?

A. Zanskar – Himadri – Shiwalik – Himachal
B. Shiwalik – Himachal – Zanskar – Himadri
C. Shiwalik – Himachal – Himadri – Zanskar
D. Shiwalik – Himachal – Zanskar – Karakoram

Answer: D. Shiwalik – Himachal – Zanskar – Karakoram
Explanation:
From south to north, the Himalayan ranges follow this sequence: Shiwalik (outer) → Himachal (lesser) → Zanskar → Karakoram (Trans-Himalaya).

2. The phenomenon of “Western Disturbances” is associated with which of the following?

A. Cyclonic storms originating over the Bay of Bengal
B. Jet streams bringing rainfall to the Western Ghats
C. Westerly winds causing winter rainfall in North India
D. Monsoon reversal during retreat

Answer: C. Westerly winds causing winter rainfall in North India
Explanation:
Western Disturbances are extra-tropical storms originating in the Mediterranean region, bringing winter rain and snow to northwestern India.

3. The “Horse Latitudes” are located approximately at which of the following latitudes?

A. Equator (0°)
B. 10°–20° North and South
C. 30° North and South
D. 50° North and South

Answer: C. 30° North and South
Explanation:
Horse Latitudes are high-pressure zones located at about 30° N and 30° S, characterized by calm winds and little precipitation.

4. Which of the following rivers does not originate from the Amarkantak Plateau?

A. Narmada
B. Son
C. Mahanadi
D. Johilla

Answer: C. Mahanadi
Explanation:
While Narmada, Son, and Johilla originate from the Amarkantak Plateau, the Mahanadi originates from the Sihawa hills of Chhattisgarh.

5. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in a temperate alpine zone?

A. Nanda Devi National Park
B. Dachigam National Park
C. Valley of Flowers National Park
D. Namdapha National Park

Answer: A. Nanda Devi National Park
Explanation:
Located in Uttarakhand, Nanda Devi National Park lies in the temperate alpine zone, with rugged terrain, glacial basins, and high elevation flora and fauna.

🌊 Oceanography – 5 Advanced MCQs with Answers

1. The zone of the ocean where light does not penetrate and photosynthesis is absent is called:

A. Photic zone
B. Aphotic zone
C. Littoral zone
D. Neritic zone

Answer: B. Aphotic zone
Explanation:
The Aphotic zone lies below the photic (sunlit) zone and is devoid of sunlight, making photosynthesis impossible.

2. The ‘Thermohaline circulation’ in oceans is primarily driven by:

A. Surface winds
B. Tidal force
C. Variations in salinity and temperature
D. Ocean currents caused by Earth's rotation

Answer: C. Variations in salinity and temperature
Explanation:
Thermohaline circulation (also called the Global Conveyor Belt) is driven by differences in water density, which depend on temperature (thermo) and salinity (haline).

3. Which of the following is a cold ocean current?

A. Kuroshio
B. Agulhas
C. Benguela
D. Brazilian

Answer: C. Benguela
Explanation:
The Benguela Current is a cold current flowing northward along the southwestern coast of Africa, influencing the Namib Desert’s arid climate.

4. What is the primary reason for high salinity in the Red Sea?

A. High precipitation and river inflow
B. Low evaporation rate
C. High evaporation and low freshwater inflow
D. Connection to the Atlantic Ocean

Answer: C. High evaporation and low freshwater inflow
Explanation:
The Red Sea has extremely high salinity due to high evaporation, scarce rainfall, and almost no river inflow.

5. The greatest ocean depth recorded—Mariana Trench—is located in which ocean?

A. Indian Ocean
B. Arctic Ocean
C. Pacific Ocean
D. Atlantic Ocean

Answer: C. Pacific Ocean
Explanation:
The Mariana Trench, specifically Challenger Deep, is the deepest known point on Earth’s seafloor and lies in the western Pacific Ocean.

📜 Indian Constitution – Articles (5 Advanced MCQs)

1. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the “Doctrine of Double Jeopardy”?

A. Article 21
B. Article 20(2)
C. Article 22
D. Article 19(1)(a)

Answer: B. Article 20(2)
Explanation:
Article 20(2) states that no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once, which is the principle of Double Jeopardy.

2. Which Article empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment?

A. Article 72
B. Article 74
C. Article 161
D. Article 356

Answer: A. Article 72
Explanation:
Article 72 gives the President of India the power to grant pardon and other forms of clemency for offenses under Union law, military court decisions, and death sentences.

3. Which Article is related to the establishment of the Inter-State Council?

A. Article 263
B. Article 280
C. Article 256
D. Article 262

Answer: A. Article 263
Explanation:
Article 263 provides for the Inter-State Council, which is established to facilitate coordination between states and the Union.

4. Under which Article can the Parliament restrict or abrogate Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency?

A. Article 19
B. Article 33
C. Article 352
D. Article 359

Answer: D. Article 359
Explanation:
Article 359 allows the President to suspend the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (except Articles 20 and 21) during a National Emergency.

5. Which of the following Articles provides for the Finance Commission?

A. Article 266
B. Article 280
C. Article 265
D. Article 275

Answer: B. Article 280
Explanation:
Article 280 deals with the Finance Commission, which recommends distribution of financial resources between the Centre and the States.

🇮🇳 Indian Polity – 5 Difficult MCQs with Answers

1. Which of the following constitutional amendments curtailed the power of judicial review and declared certain laws beyond the scrutiny of the courts?

A. 24th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 44th Amendment
D. 52nd Amendment

Answer: B. 42nd Amendment
Explanation:
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, often called the “Mini Constitution”, curtailed judicial review, expanded Parliament’s power, and inserted Article 368(4) & (5)—declaring constitutional amendments beyond judicial scrutiny (later struck down in Minerva Mills case).

2. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian federal system?

A. Dual citizenship
B. Written Constitution
C. Independent Judiciary
D. Distribution of powers

Answer: A. Dual citizenship
Explanation:
India has a single citizenship, unlike the USA, which provides dual citizenship (national and state). The rest are features of Indian federalism.

3. Under which Article can the Parliament legislate on a subject in the State List in the national interest?

A. Article 249
B. Article 250
C. Article 252
D. Article 248

Answer: A. Article 249
Explanation:
According to Article 249, the Rajya Sabha may pass a resolution (by 2/3rd majority) enabling Parliament to legislate on a State subject in national interest.

4. The concept of “Equal Protection of Laws” is borrowed from which country's constitution?

A. British Constitution
B. Irish Constitution
C. American Constitution
D. Canadian Constitution

Answer: C. American Constitution
Explanation:
The phrase “Equal Protection of Laws” in Article 14 is borrowed from the 14th Amendment of the U.S. Constitution.

5. Who among the following can initiate a motion for the removal of the Vice-President of India?

A. Lok Sabha
B. President
C. Rajya Sabha
D. Supreme Court

Answer: C. Rajya Sabha
Explanation:
Article 67(b) says that the Vice-President can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.

📊 Indian Economy – 5 Advanced MCQs with Answers

**1. The term "stagflation" refers to which of the following?

A. High inflation with low unemployment
B. Low inflation with high economic growth
C. High inflation with high unemployment and stagnant growth
D. Deflation with high growth

Answer: C. High inflation with high unemployment and stagnant growth
Explanation:
Stagflation is an economic situation where the economy experiences stagnation (no growth), high inflation, and high unemployment simultaneously. It is a rare and challenging scenario for policymakers.

2. The concept of “Inclusive Growth” was explicitly emphasized in which Five-Year Plan for the first time?

A. 9th Five-Year Plan
B. 10th Five-Year Plan
C. 11th Five-Year Plan
D. 12th Five-Year Plan

Answer: C. 11th Five-Year Plan
Explanation:
The 11th Plan (2007–2012), under the theme “Faster and More Inclusive Growth,” was the first to explicitly emphasize inclusive development as a goal, ensuring benefits reach marginalized sections.

3. Which of the following bodies decides the Base Year of the GDP calculation in India?

A. Reserve Bank of India
B. Finance Commission
C. Central Statistics Office (CSO)
D. NITI Aayog

Answer: C. Central Statistics Office (CSO)
Explanation:
The CSO (now merged into NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation is responsible for fixing the base year, revising GDP series, and national accounting.

4. What does ‘Crowding Out Effect’ refer to in macroeconomics?

A. Government borrowing reduces private investment
B. FDI reduces domestic investment
C. Subsidies increase fiscal deficit
D. Government investment increases private profits

Answer: A. Government borrowing reduces private investment
Explanation:
The Crowding Out Effect occurs when heavy government borrowing drives up interest rates, making credit costlier for the private sector, hence reducing private investment.

**5. In the context of fiscal policy, what is ‘Primary Deficit’?

A. Fiscal deficit minus interest payments
B. Total deficit minus subsidies
C. Budget deficit minus grants
D. Revenue deficit minus tax revenue

Answer: A. Fiscal deficit minus interest payments
Explanation:
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments
It indicates the current borrowing requirements of the government, excluding interest obligations on past debt.

🏦 Banking & RBI – 5 Advanced MCQs with Answers

1. Which of the following instruments is NOT used by the RBI for quantitative credit control?

A. Bank Rate
B. Open Market Operations
C. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
D. Moral Suasion

Answer: D. Moral Suasion
Explanation:
Moral Suasion is a qualitative instrument, not quantitative. It refers to the persuasive tactics used by the RBI to influence banks' lending behavior without legal enforcement.

2. Which committee recommended the introduction of the Base Rate system in India to replace the Benchmark Prime Lending Rate (BPLR)?

A. Bimal Jalan Committee
B. S.S. Tarapore Committee
C. C. Rangarajan Committee
D. Deepak Mohanty Committee

Answer: D. Deepak Mohanty Committee
Explanation:
The Deepak Mohanty Committee (2009) recommended the Base Rate system, implemented in 2010, to enhance transparency in lending rates and improve monetary policy transmission.

3. Which of the following is a liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) instrument used by RBI to absorb or inject liquidity on a short-term basis?

A. Bank Rate
B. Repo and Reverse Repo
C. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
D. SLR

Answer: B. Repo and Reverse Repo
Explanation:
Under LAF, Repo rate is used to inject liquidity, while Reverse Repo is used to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system, both for short-term adjustments.

4. What is the current legal framework that governs the Reserve Bank of India?

A. The RBI Act, 1934
B. The Banking Regulation Act, 1949
C. The Companies Act, 2013
D. The Indian Contract Act, 1872

Answer: A. The RBI Act, 1934
Explanation:
The RBI Act, 1934 provides the legal foundation for the establishment, structure, powers, and functions of the Reserve Bank of India.

5. Which among the following is NOT part of the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?

A. Governor of RBI (Chairperson)
B. Deputy Governor of RBI in charge of monetary policy
C. Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs
D. Three external members appointed by the Government

Answer: C. Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs
Explanation:
The MPC consists of 6 members:

• 3 RBI officials: Governor (Chairperson), one Deputy Governor, and one officer nominated by the Central Board
  
  

• 3 external experts appointed by the Central Government
  The Secretary of Economic Affairs is not a member.

🌿 Botany – 5 Advanced MCQs with Answers

1. Which of the following plant hormones is responsible for apical dominance in plants?

A. Cytokinin
B. Ethylene
C. Auxin
D. Gibberellin

Answer: C. Auxin
Explanation:
Auxin (especially Indole-3-acetic acid or IAA) is responsible for apical dominance, where the main shoot suppresses the growth of lateral buds.

2. Kranz anatomy is characteristic of which type of plants?

A. C₃ plants
B. CAM plants
C. C₄ plants
D. Gymnosperms

Answer: C. C₄ plants
Explanation:
Kranz anatomy (a special leaf anatomy with bundle sheath cells) is found in C₄ plants, such as maize and sugarcane, allowing efficient carbon fixation in hot, dry environments.

3. Which of the following pigments is responsible for photo-protection in plants by dissipating excess light energy?

A. Chlorophyll a
B. Carotenoids
C. Phycocyanin
D. Xanthophyll

Answer: D. Xanthophyll
Explanation:
Xanthophylls are oxygenated carotenoids that protect plants by dissipating excess light energy and preventing photo-oxidative damage.

4. In which of the following plant tissues would you expect to find lignin in highest concentration?

A. Parenchyma
B. Collenchyma
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Phloem

Answer: C. Sclerenchyma
Explanation:
Sclerenchyma cells are dead, thick-walled, and heavily lignified, providing mechanical strength to plants.

5. The Casparian strip, found in plant roots, is chemically composed of:

A. Lignin and pectin
B. Suberin
C. Cellulose
D. Hemicellulose

Answer: B. Suberin
Explanation:
The Casparian strip is a waxy band of suberin found in the endodermis of roots, acting as a selective barrier to regulate water and nutrient flow into the vascular cylinder.

🧬 Zoology – 5 Advanced MCQs with Answers

**1. Which of the following animals exhibits a pseudocoelom?

A. Earthworm
B. Cockroach
C. Roundworm
D. Starfish

Answer: C. Roundworm
Explanation:
Roundworms (Phylum Nematoda) have a pseudocoelom, a false body cavity not fully lined by mesoderm. Earthworms are coelomates, and cockroaches have hemocoel.

**2. In mammals, the corpus luteum is formed from:

A. Graafian follicle after ovulation
B. Endometrium of the uterus
C. Oocyte after meiosis
D. Zona pellucida

Answer: A. Graafian follicle after ovulation
Explanation:
After ovulation, the ruptured Graafian follicle transforms into the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone for maintaining early pregnancy.

**3. Which of the following is an ammonotelic organism?

A. Birds
B. Amphibians
C. Mammals
D. Insects

Answer: B. Amphibians
Explanation:
Ammonotelic organisms excrete ammonia, which is highly toxic and needs large amounts of water for excretion. Amphibians and bony fishes are typically ammonotelic.

**4. The Haversian system is a characteristic feature of which type of tissue?

A. Cartilage
B. Cancellous bone
C. Compact bone
D. Ligament

Answer: C. Compact bone
Explanation:
The Haversian system (osteons), comprising concentric rings of bone tissue surrounding a central canal, is a structural feature of compact bones in vertebrates.

**5. Which hormone regulates spermatogenesis in males along with testosterone?

A. LH
B. FSH
C. ACTH
D. Oxytocin

Answer: B. FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone)
Explanation:
FSH stimulates the Sertoli cells in the testes to support spermatogenesis, while LH stimulates Leydig cells to secrete testosterone.

🧪 Organic Chemistry – 5 Advanced MCQs with Answers

**1. Which of the following will give a positive Iodoform test?

A. Ethanol
B. Methanol
C. Propan-1-ol
D. Acetic acid

Answer: A. Ethanol
Explanation:
The Iodoform test is given by compounds with the group CH₃–C(OH) or CH₃–CO–.
Ethanol (CH₃CH₂OH) forms CH₃–CHOH–, which qualifies.

**2. Which of the following compounds exhibits tautomerism?

A. Benzene
B. Acetone
C. Ethene
D. Acetic acid

Answer: B. Acetone
Explanation:
Tautomerism is exhibited by compounds like ketones and aldehydes, where there is a keto-enol equilibrium.
Acetone (a ketone) shows keto ↔ enol tautomerism.

**3. Which reagent is used for distinguishing aldehydes from ketones?

A. Tollen’s reagent
B. Fehling’s solution
C. 2,4-DNP
D. Both A and B

Answer: D. Both A and B
Explanation:

• Tollen’s reagent gives silver mirror with aldehydes only.
  
  

• Fehling’s solution gives red precipitate with aliphatic aldehydes, not ketones.
  Both help differentiate aldehydes from ketones.
  
  

**4. Which of the following is most reactive in nucleophilic substitution?

A. Chlorobenzene
B. Benzyl chloride
C. Tert-butyl chloride
D. Methyl chloride

Answer: B. Benzyl chloride
Explanation:
Benzyl chloride undergoes SN1 reaction very easily due to the resonance stabilization of benzyl carbocation, making it highly reactive.

**5. The product of reaction between acetaldehyde and HCN is:

A. Cyanohydrin
B. Aldol
C. Acetal
D. Ketal

Answer: A. Cyanohydrin
Explanation:
Acetaldehyde + HCN → Cyanohydrin
This reaction is an example of nucleophilic addition to the carbonyl group.

⚗️ Physical Chemistry – Theoretical MCQs (SSC/UPSC Level)

1. Which law states that "at constant temperature, the volume of a given mass of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure"?

A. Charles's Law
B. Boyle’s Law
C. Avogadro’s Law
D. Gay-Lussac’s Law

Answer: B. Boyle’s Law
Explanation:
Boyle’s Law:

P∝1V(at constant T)P \propto \frac{1}{V} \quad \text{(at constant T)}P∝V1​(at constant T)

It describes pressure-volume inverse relation for an ideal gas.

2. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the rate of a chemical reaction?

A. Temperature
B. Catalyst
C. Activation energy
D. Equilibrium constant

Answer: D. Equilibrium constant
Explanation:
The equilibrium constant (K) is a thermodynamic quantity and does not affect the rate of a reaction. Rate depends on temperature, activation energy, and catalysts.

3. Which one of the following solutions will deviate positively from Raoult’s law?

A. Acetone + Chloroform
B. HCl + Water
C. Ethanol + Water
D. Acetone + Carbon disulfide

Answer: D. Acetone + Carbon disulfide
Explanation:
Positive deviation occurs when intermolecular forces between solute and solvent are weaker than in pure components.
Acetone + CS₂ = weaker interactions → positive deviation.

4. The enthalpy change of a chemical reaction is independent of the pathway between the initial and final states. This is a statement of:

A. First law of thermodynamics
B. Hess’s Law
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

Answer: B. Hess’s Law
Explanation:
Hess’s Law states that ΔH is a state function, depending only on initial and final states, not on the path.

5. Which of the following is not a colligative property?

A. Boiling point elevation
B. Freezing point depression
C. Vapour pressure lowering
D. Refractive index

Answer: D. Refractive index
Explanation:
Colligative properties depend on the number of solute particles, not their nature. Refractive index depends on the nature of solute and solvent—not colligative.

🧪 Inorganic Chemistry – 5 Advanced MCQs with Answers

1. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in nature?

A. Na₂O
B. SO₂
C. Al₂O₃
D. CO₂

Answer: C. Al₂O₃
Explanation:
Aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃) shows both acidic and basic behavior, reacting with acids and bases, hence is amphoteric.

2. Which of the following compounds does not contain coordinate (dative) bond?

A. NH₄⁺
B. [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺
C. BF₃
D. CO

Answer: C. BF₃
Explanation:
BF₃ is electron-deficient but does not contain a coordinate bond in its stable form. In contrast, NH₄⁺ and CO have dative bonding.

3. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?

A. F₂
B. Cl₂
C. O₂
D. Br₂

Answer: A. F₂
Explanation:
Fluorine (F₂) is the most electronegative element and has the highest electrode potential, making it the strongest oxidizing agent among halogens.

4. Which of the following is paramagnetic in nature?

A. O₂
B. N₂
C. H₂
D. F₂

Answer: A. O₂
Explanation:
According to Molecular Orbital Theory, O₂ has two unpaired electrons, making it paramagnetic, unlike N₂ and H₂ which are diamagnetic.

5. In the contact process for manufacture of sulphuric acid, the role of vanadium pentoxide (V₂O₅) is:

A. Oxidizing agent
B. Dehydrating agent
C. Catalyst
D. Precipitating agent

Answer: C. Catalyst
Explanation:
V₂O₅ acts as a catalyst in the contact process by increasing the rate of conversion of SO₂ to SO₃ without being consumed.

⚡🔋 Electricity & Magnetism – 5 Theoretical MCQs (SSC/UPSC Level)

1. Two electric charges +q and –q are placed at a distance d apart. The electric field at the midpoint between them is:

A. Zero
B. Directed toward +q
C. Directed toward –q
D. Perpendicular to the line joining the charges

Answer: C. Directed toward –q
Explanation:
The electric field vectors due to both charges are equal in magnitude but point in the same direction (from +q to –q) at the midpoint. So, the resultant field is non-zero and directed toward –q.

2. The unit of magnetic flux density in SI is:

A. Tesla
B. Weber
C. Gauss
D. Henry

Answer: A. Tesla
Explanation:
Magnetic flux density (B) is measured in Tesla (T).
1 Tesla = 1 Weber/m²

• Weber is the unit of magnetic flux.
  
  

3. A wire of resistance R is stretched to double its original length. What will be its new resistance?

A. R
B. 2R
C. 4R
D. R/2

Answer: C. 4R
Explanation:
When length is doubled, resistance increases by the square:

R′=R(L′L)2=R(2)2=4RR' = R \left(\frac{L'}{L}\right)^2 = R(2)^2 = 4RR′=R(LL′​)2=R(2)2=4R

(Since R∝L2AR \propto \frac{L^2}{A}R∝AL2​, and stretching reduces area)

4. What is the direction of the magnetic field inside a long straight current-carrying solenoid?

A. Circular around the axis
B. Along the axis
C. Perpendicular to the axis
D. Helical around the axis

Answer: B. Along the axis
Explanation:
Inside a long solenoid, the magnetic field is uniform and directed along its axis, resembling the field of a bar magnet.

5. According to Ohm’s Law, the current flowing through a conductor is:

A. Inversely proportional to voltage
B. Directly proportional to temperature
C. Directly proportional to resistance
D. Directly proportional to voltage, provided temperature is constant

Answer: D. Directly proportional to voltage, provided temperature is constant
Explanation:
Ohm’s Law:

V=IR⇒I∝V(if R is constant, i.e., constant temperature)V = IR \Rightarrow I \propto V \quad (\text{if R is constant, i.e., constant temperature})V=IR⇒I∝V(if R is constant, i.e., constant temperature) 

🔌 Current Electricity – 5 Theoretical MCQs (SSC/UPSC Level)

1. When a steady current flows through a conductor, which of the following is true about the drift velocity of electrons?

A. It is in the direction of current
B. It is opposite to the direction of current
C. It is perpendicular to the current
D. It is zero

Answer: B. It is opposite to the direction of current
Explanation:
Electrons move from negative to positive, i.e., opposite to conventional current direction, hence drift velocity is opposite to current.

2. Which of the following physical quantities remains conserved across resistors connected in series?

A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Power
D. Resistance

Answer: A. Current
Explanation:
In a series circuit, the same current flows through all components. Voltage gets divided among resistors.

3. The resistance of a wire depends on all the following factors except:

A. Length
B. Cross-sectional area
C. Temperature
D. Voltage applied

Answer: D. Voltage applied
Explanation:
Resistance depends on material, length, area, and temperature, but not on voltage, as per Ohm’s law:

R=VIR = \frac{V}{I}R=IV​

4. A copper wire and an iron wire of the same length and cross-sectional area are connected in parallel. Which one will carry more current?

A. Iron wire
B. Both will carry the same
C. Copper wire
D. Cannot be determined

Answer: C. Copper wire
Explanation:
Copper has lower resistivity than iron, hence lower resistance and therefore carries more current when connected in parallel.

5. What is the power dissipated in a resistor when 3 A of current flows through a 4-ohm resistor?

A. 12 W
B. 36 W
C. 7 W
D. 4.5 W

Answer: B. 36 W
Explanation:

P=I2R=(3)2×4=9×4=36 WP = I^2 R = (3)^2 \times 4 = 9 \times 4 = 36\ \text{W}P=I2R=(3)2×4=9×4=36 W 

🧠✨ Quantum Mechanics – 5 Advanced MCQs (SSC/UPSC Level)

1. The uncertainty principle was given by:

A. Albert Einstein
B. Niels Bohr
C. Werner Heisenberg
D. Max Planck

Answer: C. Werner Heisenberg
Explanation:
The Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle states that:

Δx⋅Δp≥h4π\Delta x \cdot \Delta p \geq \frac{h}{4\pi}Δx⋅Δp≥4πh​

It limits the precision with which position and momentum of a particle can be simultaneously known.

2. The energy of the n-th orbit of hydrogen atom is given by:

A. En=−13.6 eV⋅1nE_n = -13.6\, \text{eV} \cdot \frac{1}{n}En​=−13.6eV⋅n1​
B. En=−13.6 eV⋅1n2E_n = -13.6\, \text{eV} \cdot \frac{1}{n^2}En​=−13.6eV⋅n21​
C. En=13.6 eV⋅1nE_n = 13.6\, \text{eV} \cdot \frac{1}{n}En​=13.6eV⋅n1​
D. En=−6.8 eV⋅1n2E_n = -6.8\, \text{eV} \cdot \frac{1}{n^2}En​=−6.8eV⋅n21​

Answer: B. En=−13.6 eV⋅1n2E_n = -13.6\, \text{eV} \cdot \frac{1}{n^2}En​=−13.6eV⋅n21​
Explanation:
In Bohr's model, energy levels of hydrogen atom are quantized and follow the above expression for the n-th orbit.

3. What is the de Broglie wavelength of a particle inversely proportional to?

A. Its velocity
B. Its energy
C. Its momentum
D. Its mass only

Answer: C. Its momentum
Explanation:
The de Broglie relation:

λ=hpwhere p=mv\lambda = \frac{h}{p} \quad \text{where } p = mvλ=ph​where p=mv

So, wavelength is inversely proportional to momentum.

4. According to quantum mechanics, the ground state angular momentum of an electron in a hydrogen atom is:

A. hhh
B. h2π\frac{h}{2\pi}2πh​
C. h4π\frac{h}{4\pi}4πh​
D. Zero

Answer: D. Zero
Explanation:
In quantum mechanics, orbital angular momentum is:

L=l(l+1)⋅h2πL = \sqrt{l(l+1)} \cdot \frac{h}{2\pi}L=l(l+1)​⋅2πh​

For ground state, l=0l = 0l=0, so L = 0.

5. The principal quantum number (n) primarily determines:

A. Shape of orbital
B. Orientation of orbital
C. Size and energy of orbital
D. Spin of electron

Answer: C. Size and energy of orbital
Explanation:
The principal quantum number (n) determines the energy level and relative size of the orbital.

• n = 1, 2, 3... indicates shells like K, L, M...
  
  

⚙️ Physics – 5 Advanced MCQs with Answers (SSC/UPSC Level)

1. A body of mass 10 kg is moving with a speed of 5 m/s. What is its kinetic energy and what will be the work required to stop it?

A. 125 J, 125 J
B. 250 J, 125 J
C. 100 J, 200 J
D. 125 J, 250 J

Answer: A. 125 J, 125 J
Explanation:
Kinetic energy:

KE=12mv2=12(10)(5)2=125 JKE = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 = \frac{1}{2}(10)(5)^2 = 125\, \text{J}KE=21​mv2=21​(10)(5)2=125J

Work required to stop = Kinetic energy = 125 J

2. Which law of thermodynamics introduces the concept of entropy?

A. Zeroth law
B. First law
C. Second law
D. Third law

Answer: C. Second law
Explanation:
The Second Law of Thermodynamics introduces the concept of entropy, stating that entropy of an isolated system always increases or remains constant.

3. The half-life of a radioactive element is 20 days. What percentage of the original sample will remain after 60 days?

A. 12.5%
B. 25%
C. 6.25%
D. 50%

Answer: A. 12.5%
Explanation:
60 days = 3 half-lives
After 1 → 50%,
After 2 → 25%,
After 3 → 12.5% remains

4. When a ray of light passes from air to glass, what changes?

A. Wavelength increases
B. Frequency increases
C. Speed decreases
D. Speed increases

Answer: C. Speed decreases
Explanation:
In a denser medium (glass), the speed of light decreases, while frequency remains unchanged and wavelength decreases.

5. Which of the following statements about the center of mass is correct?

A. It is always located at the geometric center.
B. It always lies within the body.
C. It is the point where total mass is concentrated for motion analysis.
D. It moves only when the object rotates.

Answer: C. It is the point where total mass is concentrated for motion analysis.
Explanation:
The center of mass is a conceptual point where the entire mass of the system can be considered concentrated when analyzing translational motion.

🌍 World History – 5 Advanced MCQs (SSC/UPSC Level)

1. The Treaty of Versailles (1919) held which country responsible for starting World War I?

A. Austria-Hungary
B. Germany
C. Russia
D. Ottoman Empire

Answer: B. Germany
Explanation:
The Treaty of Versailles placed the entire blame for World War I on Germany and its allies, imposing heavy war reparations and territorial losses on Germany.

2. Who was the main architect of the policy of "Realpolitik" in 19th century Europe?

A. Giuseppe Garibaldi
B. Napoleon III
C. Otto von Bismarck
D. Klemens von Metternich

Answer: C. Otto von Bismarck
Explanation:
Bismarck, the Chancellor of Prussia and later Germany, followed Realpolitik, a strategy of practical politics based on power and pragmatic diplomacy rather than ideology.

3. The Industrial Revolution first began in which sector of the economy?

A. Iron and Steel
B. Coal Mining
C. Textile
D. Shipbuilding

Answer: C. Textile
Explanation:
The Industrial Revolution began in 18th century Britain, primarily in the textile industry, with inventions like the spinning jenny and power loom.

4. The Meiji Restoration in Japan is associated with:

A. Western colonization of Japan
B. Fall of the Tokugawa Shogunate and modernization
C. Rise of samurai culture
D. Japan’s invasion of China

Answer: B. Fall of the Tokugawa Shogunate and modernization
Explanation:
The Meiji Restoration (1868) ended feudal rule, restored imperial power, and led to rapid industrialization, military reform, and westernization in Japan.

5. Which event triggered the Great Depression of 1929?

A. Treaty of Versailles
B. Stock Market Crash in the USA
C. Rise of Fascism in Italy
D. Hyperinflation in Germany

Answer: B. Stock Market Crash in the USA
Explanation:
The Wall Street Crash of October 1929 marked the beginning of the Great Depression, leading to economic collapse, unemployment, and widespread poverty globally.

🐾 Animal Kingdom – 5 Advanced MCQs with Answers

1. Which among the following is a urochordate that shows retrogressive metamorphosis?

A. Balanoglossus
B. Amphioxus
C. Ascidia
D. Petromyzon

Answer: C. Ascidia
Explanation:
Ascidia (a sea squirt) belongs to Urochordata, and its larval form has all chordate features. As it matures, it loses notochord and tail, showing retrogressive metamorphosis.

2. In which animal is the four-chambered heart found but still cold-blooded?

A. Crocodile
B. Turtle
C. Penguin
D. Whale

Answer: A. Crocodile
Explanation:
Crocodiles are reptiles, hence cold-blooded, but they uniquely possess a four-chambered heart, like birds and mammals.

3. Which of the following animals exhibit metameric segmentation?

A. Hydra
B. Tapeworm
C. Earthworm
D. Amoeba

Answer: C. Earthworm
Explanation:
Metamerism is true segmentation seen in annelids like earthworms, where the body is divided into repeating segments internally and externally.

4. Which one of the following is a viviparous animal?

A. Platypus
B. Crocodile
C. Kangaroo
D. Frog

Answer: C. Kangaroo
Explanation:
Kangaroos are marsupials and viviparous, giving live birth.

• Platypus: lays eggs (oviparous mammal)
  
  

• Crocodile and frog: oviparous
  
  

5. Which animal has the highest number of hearts among the following?

A. Octopus
B. Human
C. Earthworm
D. Squid

Answer: A. Octopus
Explanation:
The octopus has three hearts:

• Two branchial hearts pump blood to the gills
  
  

• One systemic heart pumps blood to the body

🔢 Sequence & Series / Missing Numbers – Reasoning MCQs

**1. What comes next in the series?

3, 9, 27, 81, ?
A. 162
B. 243
C. 324
D. 216

Answer: B. 243
Explanation:
It’s a geometric progression:
Each term is multiplied by 3 →
3 × 3 = 9, 9 × 3 = 27, 27 × 3 = 81, 81 × 3 = 243

**2. Find the missing number:

2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
A. 42
B. 40
C. 38
D. 36

Answer: A. 42
Explanation:
Pattern: Add natural numbers in sequence:
+4, +6, +8, +10, +12
So:
30 + 12 = 42

**3. Find the next term in the series:

7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ?
A. 13
B. 10
C. 11
D. 8

Answer: B. 10
Explanation:
Alternating sequences:

• 1st, 3rd, 5th terms: 7, 8, 9 → +1
  
  

• 2nd, 4th, 6th terms: 10, 11, 12 → +1
  Next should be part of first pattern → 9 + 1 = 10
  
  

**4. What is the missing number?

1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?, 49
A. 35
B. 30
C. 36
D. 40

Answer: C. 36
Explanation:
These are perfect squares:
12,22,32,...,721^2, 2^2, 3^2, ..., 7^212,22,32,...,72
So missing: 62=366^2 = 3662=36

**5. What is the missing number in the series?

2, 3, 5, 8, 12, 17, ?
A. 22
B. 23
C. 24
D. 25

Answer: B. 23
Explanation:
Pattern of differences:
+1, +2, +3, +4, +5...
So:
17 + 6 = 23

📘 Comprehension Passage

In recent decades, the notion of economic growth as an infallible indicator of national progress has come under intense scrutiny. While Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has long served as the standard metric for measuring a country's economic performance, critics argue that it fails to capture the multifaceted dimensions of human well-being and environmental sustainability. For instance, GDP may rise while income inequality widens, ecosystems degrade, and mental health deteriorates—none of which are reflected in aggregate output figures.

Proponents of alternative indicators propose composite indices like the Human Development Index (HDI) or Gross National Happiness (GNH), which encompass variables such as education, health, psychological well-being, and ecological resilience. These indices aim to portray a more holistic picture of development, integrating both quantitative and qualitative facets of life. However, detractors counter that such metrics are inherently subjective and prone to political manipulation.

Furthermore, the transition from GDP-centric models to more inclusive frameworks entails significant policy realignments. It demands not only statistical overhauls but also paradigm shifts in governance and public consciousness. The challenge lies in balancing economic aspirations with equitable and sustainable practices—a task easier said than done. In this context, the real question is not whether GDP should be discarded, but how to complement it with indicators that reflect the true pulse of a nation's progress.

❓ MCQs

1. What is the primary critique of GDP as discussed in the passage?
A) It underestimates industrial growth.
B) It does not include population figures.
C) It overlooks aspects of well-being and sustainability.
D) It is too complex to calculate accurately.

✅ Answer: C
Explanation: The passage critiques GDP for not reflecting well-being, inequality, or environmental degradation.

2. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an alternative to GDP?
A) Human Development Index
B) Gross National Happiness
C) World Economic Forum Index
D) Ecological resilience

✅ Answer: C
Explanation: The passage mentions HDI, GNH, and ecological factors, but not any "World Economic Forum Index."

3. According to the passage, what is a major challenge in moving beyond GDP?
A) Lack of mathematical formulas
B) Political instability
C) Shifting public and policy perspectives
D) High cost of computation

✅ Answer: C
Explanation: The passage clearly states the difficulty of changing mindsets and policies in transitioning to alternative frameworks.

🔤 Synonym MCQs

1. OBSEQUIOUS
A) Rebellious
B) Submissive
C) Arrogant
D) Independent

✅ Answer: B) Submissive
Explanation: Obsequious means excessively eager to please or obey, often in a servile way. Submissive is the closest in meaning.

2. TURPITUDE
A) Excellence
B) Virtue
C) Depravity
D) Nobility

✅ Answer: C) Depravity
Explanation: Turpitude means moral corruption or wickedness. Depravity shares the same connotation.

3. RECONDITE
A) Common
B) Mysterious
C) Shallow
D) Obvious

✅ Answer: B) Mysterious
Explanation: Recondite refers to something obscure or difficult to understand, hence mysterious is the right synonym.

4. EXCORIATE
A) Praise
B) Criticize harshly
C) Protect
D) Ignore

✅ Answer: B) Criticize harshly
Explanation: Excoriating someone means severely criticizing them, often in a scathing manner.

5. PERSPICACIOUS
A) Dull
B) Insightful
C) Forgetful
D) Talkative

✅ Answer: B) Insightful
Explanation: Perspicacious means having a ready insight into and understanding of things. Insightful is the accurate synonym.

❗ Antonym MCQs

1. ABSTRUSE
A) Vague
B) Complex
C) Clear
D) Intricate

✅ Answer: C) Clear
Explanation: Abstruse means difficult to understand or obscure. Its opposite is clear or easy to comprehend.

2. LOQUACIOUS
A) Silent
B) Talkative
C) Social
D) Expressive

✅ Answer: A) Silent
Explanation: Loquacious refers to someone very talkative. The antonym is silent or reserved in speech.

3. BENEVOLENT
A) Generous
B) Kind
C) Malevolent
D) Friendly

✅ Answer: C) Malevolent
Explanation: Benevolent means kind and well-meaning. Its opposite is malevolent, meaning evil or harmful intent.

4. MITIGATE
A) Intensify
B) Soothe
C) Reduce
D) Heal

✅ Answer: A) Intensify
Explanation: Mitigate means to lessen or ease. The antonym is intensify, which means to increase in severity or strength.

5. EPHEMERAL
A) Fleeting
B) Transient
C) Permanent
D) Temporary

✅ Answer: C) Permanent
Explanation: Ephemeral means lasting for a very short time. The opposite is permanent, which lasts indefinitely.

🗣️ Narration MCQs

1. He said, “I have completed the project.”
A) He said that he had completed the project.
B) He said that he has completed the project.
C) He said that I had completed the project.
D) He said that he would complete the project.

✅ Answer: A) He said that he had completed the project.
Explanation: Present perfect (“have completed”) changes to past perfect (“had completed”) in indirect speech.

2. She said to me, “Did you attend the seminar yesterday?”
A) She asked me if I had attended the seminar the day before.
B) She asked me whether I attended the seminar yesterday.
C) She said to me that did I attend the seminar.
D) She asked me had I attended the seminar the previous day.

✅ Answer: A) She asked me if I had attended the seminar the day before.
Explanation: Question form “Did you…” becomes if + past perfect, and “yesterday” changes to “the day before.”

3. The teacher said, “Honesty is the best policy.”
A) The teacher said honesty had been the best policy.
B) The teacher said honesty is the best policy.
C) The teacher said that honesty was the best policy.
D) The teacher said that honesty is best policy.

✅ Answer: B) The teacher said honesty is the best policy.
Explanation: This is a universal truth, so the tense remains unchanged in indirect speech.

4. He said, “Alas! I have lost my wallet.”
A) He exclaimed sorrowfully that he has lost his wallet.
B) He exclaimed that he had lost his wallet.
C) He exclaimed with sorrow that he had lost his wallet.
D) He said with regret that he had lost the wallet.

✅ Answer: C) He exclaimed with sorrow that he had lost his wallet.
Explanation: “Alas!” shows sorrow, so use “exclaimed with sorrow” and change present perfect to past perfect.

5. They said, “Let us go for a walk.”
A) They proposed that they should go for a walk.
B) They suggested going for a walk.
C) They said that let us go for a walk.
D) They said that we should go for a walk.

✅ Answer: A) They proposed that they should go for a walk.
Explanation: “Let us” changes to a proposal or suggestion in indirect speech, often using “proposed” + “should.”

🗣️ Voice Change MCQs (Active ↔ Passive)

1. They will have completed the work by tomorrow.
A) The work will have been completed by them by tomorrow.
B) The work would have been completed by tomorrow.
C) The work will be completed by them by tomorrow.
D) The work shall have been completed tomorrow.

✅ Answer: A) The work will have been completed by them by tomorrow.
Explanation:
Tense = Future Perfect.
Structure: will have + past participle → Passive: will have been + past participle.

2. Who wrote this beautiful poem?
A) By whom was this beautiful poem written?
B) This beautiful poem is written by whom?
C) This beautiful poem was written by whom?
D) Who was this beautiful poem written by?

✅ Answer: A) By whom was this beautiful poem written?
Explanation:
In passive voice of “Who” questions, “Who” becomes “By whom,” and tense stays in past simple.

3. The manager is reviewing the files.
A) The files are being reviewed by the manager.
B) The files were being reviewed by the manager.
C) The files have been reviewed by the manager.
D) The files are reviewed by the manager.

✅ Answer: A) The files are being reviewed by the manager.
Explanation:
Tense = Present Continuous
Structure: is/are + -ing → Passive: is/are being + past participle.

4. Let them complete the task.
A) Let the task be completed by them.
B) The task must be completed by them.
C) Let them be completing the task.
D) Let the task completed by them.

✅ Answer: A) Let the task be completed by them.
Explanation:
“Let + object + base verb” changes to “Let + object + be + past participle.”

5. The storm damaged several houses.
A) Several houses were damaged by the storm.
B) Several houses had been damaged by the storm.
C) Several houses are damaged by the storm.
D) Several houses have been damaged by the storm.

✅ Answer: A) Several houses were damaged by the storm.
Explanation:
Tense = Past Simple
Structure: verb (past) → Passive: was/were + past participle.

🔀 Jumbled Sentence MCQs

1.
P: scientists discovered a new planet
Q: using the James Webb telescope
R: orbiting a distant star
S: last week in the Andromeda galaxy

Options:
A) P Q R S
B) Q P S R
C) Q P R S
D) P R Q S

✅ Answer: C) Q P R S
Explanation: The sentence flows logically as:
Q (method) → P (action) → R (object) → S (place/time).

2.
P: that his resignation
Q: shocked everyone in the department
R: was so sudden
S: it was

Options:
A) S P R Q
B) P S R Q
C) S R P Q
D) S P Q R

✅ Answer: A) S P R Q
Explanation: Logical sequence is: It was → that his resignation → was so sudden → shocked everyone.

3.
P: unless you provide proper references
Q: the journal won’t publish
R: your research article
S: in APA format

Options:
A) P Q S R
B) P Q R S
C) Q P R S
D) R Q S P

✅ Answer: B) P Q R S
Explanation: Conditional clause (unless...) comes first, followed by the main sentence.

4.
P: economic slowdown
Q: and geopolitical instability
R: the market crashed due to
S: a combination of

Options:
A) R S P Q
B) R P Q S
C) S Q P R
D) Q P S R

✅ Answer: A) R S P Q
Explanation: Begins with “The market crashed due to...”, followed by the cause in a logical sequence.

5.
P: he had forgotten his ID card
Q: when he reached the airport
R: and was not allowed to board
S: he realized that

Options:
A) Q S P R
B) S Q P R
C) S P Q R
D) Q P S R

✅ Answer: A) Q S P R
Explanation: The event starts with arrival, then realization, then cause, then result.

🎭 Idioms & Phrases – MCQs

1. To throw in the towel
A) To fight bravely
B) To challenge someone
C) To give up
D) To delay a decision

✅ Answer: C) To give up
Explanation: “Throw in the towel” is a boxing reference meaning to surrender or accept defeat.

2. To burn the midnight oil
A) To light a fire at night
B) To study or work late into the night
C) To waste time
D) To plan secretly